C1: Macular Degeneration, Glaucoma, Pediatrics, Pregnancy
C2: Antibiotic Selection, Stewardship, Resistance
C3: Vanco, AMG, CNS, CAP
C4: HAP/VAP, SSTI, DFI
C5: UTIS, STIs, Intra-abdominal, Bone/Joint
C6: Endocarditis, URI, AB prophylaxis, Fungal
C7: Lyme Disease, Influenza/COVID/MP, CF
C8: Hepatitis
C9: GI Stuff
100

This class of medications are most effective at decreasing IOP in glaucoma. 

BONUS (x300) if you can name 3 brand/generic combination

what is prostaglandin analogs 

bimatoprost (Lumigan) 

latanoprost (xalatan, xelpros) 

travoprost (travatan Z)

100

This class of medications use porin channels in the cell membrane 

Bonus (x300) if you name all 3 of them 

what is carbapenems 


ertapenem, meropenem, imipenem/cilastatin

100

The goal vancomycin trough level for pneumonia infections

what is 15-20 mcg/mL 

100

The two most common pathogens in skin infections

what is staphylococcus aureus and streptococcus

100

Minimum treatment duration for osteomyelitis for all organisms 

what is 6 weeks 

100

The PO antibiotic given prophylactically to prevent endocarditis from dental procedures 

amoxicillin

100

The unique symptom of COVID-19 when compared to flu/cold 

what is change or loss of taste or smell 

100

2 brand names of Hepatitis B vaccines

what is Energix or recombivax or Heplisav-B

100

Patients taking metronidazole should not use alcohol due to this adverse reaction

what is disulfiram reaction

200

The (TWO) first line pharmacologic options for N/V in pregnancy 

what are vitamin B 6 (Pyridoxine) and doxylamine

200

Nitrofurantoin can only be used for this type of infection as it does not achieve adequate systemic levels 

what is cystitis

200

 3 treatment options for outpatient CAP in those without comorbidities 

what is amoxicillin, doxycycline, or azithromycin/clarithromycin

200

Oral step down drug for pseudomonas HAP/VAP 

Oral step down drug for MRSA HAP/VAP

what is levofloxacin and linezolid 

200

Empiric treatment of osteomyelitis includes one antipseudomonal and vancomycin. Use this antipseudomonal if anaerobic coverage is needed. 

what is meropenem 

200

For patients weight greater than this much, give 3 g of cefazolin

120 kg 

200

This influenza treatment option has no age restrictions and can be used in children

what is oseltamivir

200

Pressure in the portal vein of greater than ___ mmHg is diagnostic of portal HTN

what is 5

200

The side effect profile of H2RAs that land them on the Beer's List 

what is dizziness, fatigue, somnolence sedation 

300

Two classes of antihypertensive medications to be avoided in pregnant patients 

And one treatment of choice

what are ACEi and ARBs 

TOC: labetalol or nifedipine ER (Maybe methyldopa or amlodipine)

300

The antibiotic class that has excellent activity against atypical organisms


BONUS (x300) if you can name three drugs 

what are macrolides

erythromycin, clarithromycin, and azithromycin 

300

Describe how clearance of aminoglycosides differs in  cystic fibrosis vs geriatric and neonates

CF increased clearance, need higher doses geriatric and neonates decreased clearance

300

An acceptable regimen to empirically treat a HAP/VAP patient with high risk of mortality or IV abx use in the past 90 days

what is two anti-pseudomonals (not two beta lactams) + vancomycin or linezolid 

300

Three treatment options for uncomplicated cystitis 

(BONUS x 300 if you can list one side effect from each medication) 

Nitrofurantoin (brown colored urine, nausea, pulmonary fibrosis reported) 

SMX/TMP (sun sensitivity, skin reactions, hyperkalemia, kidney stones) 

Fosfomycin (nausea, back ache headache) 


300

The class of medications that used for vaginal yeast infections 


azoles 

300

The off-label MPOX drug therapy that is approved for small pox

(No FDA approved options for MPOX)  

what is tecovirimat

300

Two beta blockers used in primary and secondary prevention of portal hypertension

what is nadolol and propranolol or carvedilol

300

2 Black box warnings for PPIs 

what is C.difficile associated diarrhea, and osteoporosis related bone fractures with long-term use and high doses 

400

A 7 year old female is 24 kg and being treated with high dose amoxicillin 90 mg/kg/day in two divided doses. This amount of mL of 600mg/5mL should be given each dose

what is 9 mL per dose

400

List the groups that make up the Antimicrobial Stewardship Triad

what is ID clinicians/RPH, infection control, and microbiology 

400

List the common organisms in penetrating meningitis 

Staphylococcus aureus, coagulase negative staphylococci, aerobic gram negative bacilli (p. aeruginosa) 

400

The antibiotic used to treat minor diabetic foot infection without previous MRSA, and the antibiotic used if previous MRSA 

cephalexin and bactrim 

400

Three treatment options for moderate to severe intra-abdominal infections 

pip/tazo, cefepime+ metronidazole, levofloxacin + metronidazole 

400

When is amoxicillin/clavulanate considered in AOM treatment?

treatment failure/not improved in 48-72 hrs or if used amoxicillin in past 30 days

400

Counseling points on how to take CFTRs and what to do if missed a dose 

with or after high fat meal 

up to 6 hours before next dose is due, take it; if less than 6 hours, omit

400

Three drug therapies used for treatment of HE

what is lactulose, rifaximin, and neomycin

400

List 3 counseling points/lifestyle management for GERD

weight loss, avoid meals before bed, short intervals, avoid tobacco smoking, trigger foods, elevate head of bed, PPI treatment 30-60 minutes before meals


500

This class of drugs treats wet age-related macular degeneration 

BONUS (x1500 points if you can name 3 brand generic)

what is VEGF inhibitors 

Bevacizumab (Avastin)  
Ranibizumab (Lucentis)
Aflibercept (Eylea)  

500

List at least 10 antibiotics that are available orally. 

Penicillin VK, amoxicillin, oxacillin, dicloxacillin, cloxacillin, cephalexin, cefuozime, cefdinir, cefixime, cefpodoxime, ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin, moxifloxacin, azithromycin, clarithromycin, erythromycin, doxycycline, minocycline, bactrim, vancomycin for C.diff, linezolid, clindamycin, metronidazole, fidaxomicin, fosfomycin, nitrofurantoin 

500

The three preferred antimicrobial therapy options for penetrating trauma meningitis 

what is vancomycin + cefepime, vancomycin + ceftazidime, or vancomycin + meropenem 

500

Four antibiotics that can be used to treat mild non-purulent infection  

what is penicillin VK, cephalexin, dicloxacillin, or  clindamycin

500

This class of antibiotics is ineffective for chlamydia treatment and thus one of three options can be used instead

what is beta lactams are ineffective 

doxycycline azithromycin, or levofloxacin

500

List 5 antibiotics used in antibiotic prophylaxis for surgery. 

BONUS (x100 for each additional antibiotic listed)  

cefazolin, clindamycin, vancomycin, cefoxitin, ceftriaxone, metronidazole, ertapenem, levofloxacin, ampicillin/sulbactam

500

Two oral options for lyme disease and the one IV option for lyme disease

doxycycline, amoxicillin, or cefuroxime 


ceftriaxone

500

This patient population should receive hepatitis A shot

routinely in children 12-23 months and 2-18 who have not yet had a vaccine

500

These TWO antacids accumulate with severe renal dysfunction

what is aluminum and magnesium