Females tend to have a narrower ____________, which predisposes them to ACL injury.
What is intercondylar notch of the femur
100
This structure limits posterior translation of the tibia on the femur.
What is the PCL
100
This arthrokinematic motion is prevented by the ACL in an open kinetic chain.
What is the anterior slide of the tibia on the femur.
100
During flexion, the ACL is (stretched/relaxed), and the PCL is (stretched/relaxed).
What is relaxed, stretched
100
This muscle group eccentrically contracts during the late swing phase of gait to decelerate the leg.
What is the hamstring muscle group
200
Surgery following an ACL injury increases the risk of ___________.
What is osteoarthritis
200
These two soft tissue structures attach to the medial meniscus.
What is the MCL and distal attachment of the popliteus
200
During weight-bearing, this muscle internally rotates the femur on the tibia to "unlock" the knee during flexion.
What is the popliteus
200
Name three factors that affect moment arm length at the knee/patella.
What are shape and position of the patella, depth of the intercondylar groove of the femur, and the evolute knee
200
During this phase of gait, maximal knee flexion is assumed.
What is the mid-swing phase
300
To measure Q angle, the stationary arm aligns with the ________, the fulcrum aligns with the ________, and the moving arm aligns with the _________.
What is the ASIS, patella, tibial tuberosity
300
This _________ muscles act as the ACL antagonist, while the _________ muscles act as the PCL antagonist.
What is quadriceps; hamstrings
300
True or False: The "evolute" or migrating axis of the knee changes due to the shape of only the medial condyle during flexion/extension.
What is False
300
This is the purpose of the patella when discussing torque at the knee.
What is it acts as a spacer between the quadriceps and tibial tuberosity (the IMA), therefore creating more leverage. It also acts as a pulley
300
The knee is flexed at approximately 5 degrees during ________.
What is initial contact
400
"Wind swept" is defined as having this.
What is genu valgum and genu varum
400
These three structures make up the "dynamic MCL"
What are the sartorius, gracillis, and semitendinosus (pes anserine group)
400
This is the curved path of the medial-lateral axis for flexion and extension of the knee.
What is the evolute knee
400
Which of the following are local factors affecting patllofemoral joint tracking? (Select all that apply.)
a. gluteus medius weakness
b. line of force quadriceps
c. raised lateral facet of intercondylar groove
d. subtalar joint pronation
e. medial retinacular fibers
What is b, c, and e
400
True or False: While an athlete is walking, during knee extension, the popliteus externally rotates the medial femoral condyle.
What is false. The popliteus internally rotates the medial femoral condyle.
500
Excessive genu ______ will require one to undergo a total knee replacement, while excessive genu _____ can be treated orthotically with a wedge.
What is valgum, varum
500
Name 3 of the 4 functions of the menisci.
What is absorb compressive forces, stabilize femoral condyles during movement, guide arthrokinematics, and lubricate articular cartilage (any three)
500
The IMA is greatest between ____ - ___ degrees of knee flexion because the patella hits the femoral facets/condyles.
What is 20-60 degrees
500
Name 6 local factors and how they influence patellar tracking.
What are:
1. Tight IT band creates lateral pull
2. Tight lateral patellar retinaculum causes lateral pull
3. Bowstring affect affects overall line of pull of quadriceps
4. VMO fibers may pull patella medially
5. Medial patellar retinaculum fibers create a medially directed force
6. Raised lateral femoral facet helps prevent lateral displacement
500
When on a planted foot, internal rotation is controlled by the _______ muscle and the ______ group.
What is biceps femoris, pes anserine ("dynamic MCL")