A&P/ MIS
Muscle/ MIS
TERM
Infection
MIS
100

Which structure carries urine from the kidney to the bladder?

A. Urethra

B. Ureter

C. Nephron

D. Renal artery

 B. Ureter

Rationale: Ureters transport urine from each kidney to the urinary bladder.

100

 Which structure connects muscle to bone?

A. Ligament

B. Tendon

C. Cartilage

D. Bursa

B. Tendon

 Tendons attach muscle to bone; ligaments connect bone to bone.

100

What does the suffix -ectomy mean?

A. Surgical removal

B. Visual examination

C. Incision into

D. Inflammation

 A. Surgical removal

Rationale: The suffix -ectomy means surgical removal of a structure

100

Which practice is most effective for preventing infection transmission between patients?

A. Wearing the same gloves all shift

B. Performing hand hygiene at indicated times

C. Keeping doors closed

D. Taking antibiotics routinely

 B. Performing hand hygiene at indicated times

Rationale: Hand hygiene is a core measure for preventing pathogen transmission

100

Which blood component primarily transports oxygen?

A. Platelets

B. Red blood cells

C. Plasma proteins

D. Leukocytes

B. Red blood cells

200

Which hormone lowers blood glucose?

A. Glucagon

B. Cortisol

C. Insulin

D. Thyroxine

C. Insulin

Rationale: Insulin promotes glucose uptake and storage, lowering blood glucose

200

 A patient with limited English proficiency needs instructions. What is the best practice?

A. Use a qualified medical interpreter according to policy

B. Rely on a young child to interpret complex consent

C. Speak louder in English only

D. Skip instructions

 A. Use a qualified medical interpreter according to policy

Rationale: Qualified interpreters support accurate communication and informed decision-making.

200

 Which term means inflammation of the liver?

A. Nephritis

B. Hepatitis

C. Gastritis

D. Cystitis

B. Hepatitis

Rationale: Hepat- refers to the liver and -itis means inflammation

200

Which type of precaution is used for suspected pulmonary tuberculosis?

A. Contact

B. Droplet

C. Airborne

D. Standard only

C. Airborne

Rationale: Pulmonary TB requires airborne precautions, including appropriate respiratory protection and room controls

200

Which pulse site is commonly checked during adult CPR by trained responders?

A. Radial

B. Carotid

C. Temporal

D. Dorsalis pedis

 B. Carotid

Rationale: The carotid is a central pulse site used in adult cardiac arrest assessment.

300

CCMA 

Free

300

 Which action is correct before venipuncture?

A. Identify the patient using approved identifiers and verify the test orders

B. Draw before checking the order

C. Label tubes later from memory

D. Ask another patient to confirm iden

A. Identify the patient using approved identifiers and verify the test orders

Rationale: Correct identification and order verification prevent specimen errors.

300

 Which term means surgical repair of a joint?

A. Arthralgia

B. Arthroplasty

C. Arthroscopy

D. Arthritis

 B. Arthroplasty

Rationale: Arthroplasty is surgical repair or reconstruction of a joint

300

What is the purpose of sterilization?

A. Reduce odors

B. Destroy all forms of microbial life, including spores

C. Remove visible dirt only

D. Kill only viruses

B. Destroy all forms of microbial life, including spores

Rationale: Sterilization eliminates all microbial life, including bacterial spores.

300

Which blood pressure is a low reading that warrants prompt assessment when accompanied by dizziness?

A. 122/78 mm Hg

B. 118/76 mm Hg

C. 86/54 mm Hg

D. 128/82 mm Hg

C. 86/54 mm Hg

Rationale: Low blood pressure with symptoms such as dizziness may indicate instability and needs prompt escalation.

400

 Which route delivers medication directly into a vein?

A. Intradermal

B. Subcutaneous

C. Intramuscular

D. Intravenous

 D. Intravenous

Rationale: Intravenous administration delivers medication into a vein.

400

A prescription is for 500 mg. Tablets contain 250 mg each. How many tablets equal the prescribed dose?

A. 0.5 tablet

B. 1 tablet

C. 2 tablets

D. 3 tablets

 C. 2 tablets

Rationale: 500 mg ÷ 250 mg per tablet = 2 tablets.

400

What does hematuria describe?

A. Blood in urine

B. Protein in urine

C. Painful swallowing

D. Low blood sugar

A. Blood in urine

Rationale: Hematuria is the presence of blood in the urin

400

After a needlestick injury, what should the worker do first?

A. Hide the incident

B. Wash the area and promptly report it per protocol

C. Finish the shift before reporting

D. Apply bleach

B. Wash the area and promptly report it per protocol

Rationale: Immediate washing and prompt reporting allow timely exposure evaluation and follow-up

400

 Where is the V1 electrode placed for a standard 12-lead ECG?

A. Fourth intercostal space, right sternal border

B. Fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line

C. Left midaxillary line at V4 level

D. Right wrist only

A. Fourth intercostal space, right sternal border

Rationale: V1 is placed at the fourth intercostal space at the right sternal border.

500

What does informed consent generally require?

A. A signature without explanation in every situation

B. Adequate information and a voluntary decision by a capable patient, as applicable

C. The medical assistant to independently explain every surgical risk

D. Consent from any visitor

B. Adequate information and a voluntary decision by a capable patient, as applicable

Rationale: Informed consent involves relevant disclosure, understanding, and voluntary agreement; the responsible provider obtains it as required.

500

What does a pulse oximeter estimate?

A. Blood glucose

B. Oxygen saturation of arterial hemoglobin

C. Blood pressure

D. Hemoglobin concentration directly

. B. Oxygen saturation of arterial hemoglobin

Rationale: Pulse oximetry estimates peripheral oxygen saturation, not blood pressure or glucose.

500

Which term means difficulty breathing?

A. Apnea

B. Dyspnea

C. Dysuria

D. Dysphagia

B. Dyspnea

Rationale: Dyspnea is difficult or uncomfortable brea

500

What should be done with a used needle immediately after use?

A. Recap with two hands

B. Bend it

C. Activate safety feature and discard in sharps container

D. Leave it on the tray

C. Activate safety feature and discard in sharps container

Rationale: Prompt safety-device activation and sharps disposal reduce needlestick risk.

500

Why must specimens be labeled at the point of collection according to policy?

A. To improve handwriting style

B. To ensure the specimen is matched to the correct patient

C. To avoid using identifiers

D. To replace the requisition

 B. To ensure the specimen is matched to the correct patient

Rationale: Immediate, accurate labeling reduces specimen identification errors