Show:
Pulmonary
Cardiac
Neuro
Lab Values
Misc
100
The nurse obtains the following assessment data on an older patient who has influenza. Which information will be most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider? a. Fever of 100.4° F (38° C) b. Diffuse crackles in the lungs c. Sore throat and frequent cough d. Myalgia and persistent headache
What is B. The crackles indicate that the patient may be developing pneumonia, a common complication of influenza, which would require aggressive treatment. Myalgia, headache, mild temperature elevation, and sore throat with cough are typical manifestations of influenza and are treated with supportive care measures such as over-the-counter (OTC) pain relievers and increased fluid intake.
100
The nurse obtains the following information from a patient newly diagnosed with prehypertension. Which finding is most important to address with the patient? a. Low dietary fiber intake b. No regular aerobic exercise c. Weight 5 pounds above ideal weight d. Drinks a beer with dinner on most nights
What is B The recommendations for preventing hypertension include exercising aerobically for 30 minutes most days of the week. A weight that is 5 pounds over the ideal body weight is not a risk factor for hypertension. The Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension (DASH) diet is high in fiber, but increasing fiber alone will not prevent hypertension from developing. The patient’s alcohol intake is within guidelines and will not increase the hypertension risk.
100
Admission vital signs for a brain-injured patient are blood pressure 128/68, pulse 110, and respirations 26. Which set of vital signs, if taken 1 hour after admission, will be of most concern to the nurse? a. Blood pressure 154/68, pulse 56, respirations 12 b. Blood pressure 134/72, pulse 90, respirations 32 c. Blood pressure 148/78, pulse 112, respirations 28 d. Blood pressure 110/70, pulse 120, respirations 30
What is A Systolic hypertension with widening pulse pressure, bradycardia, and respiratory changes represent Cushing’s triad. These findings indicate that the intracranial pressure (ICP) has increased, and brain herniation may be imminent unless immediate action is taken to reduce ICP. The other vital signs may indicate the need for changes in treatment, but they are not indicative of an immediately life-threatening process.
100
A nurse reviews the laboratory data for an older patient. The nurse would be most concerned about which finding? a. Hematocrit of 35% b. Hemoglobin of 11.8 g/dL c. Platelet count of 400,000/µL d. White blood cell (WBC) count of 2800/µL
What is D Because the total WBC count is not usually affected by aging, the low WBC count in this patient would indicate that the patient’s immune function may be compromised and the underlying cause of the problem needs to be investigated. The platelet count is normal. The slight decrease in hemoglobin and hematocrit are not unusual for an older patient.
100
The nurse is performing an eye examination on a 76-year-old patient. The nurse should refer the patient for a more extensive assessment based on which finding? a. The patient’s sclerae are light yellow. b. The patient reports persistent photophobia. c. The pupil recovers slowly after responding to a bright light. d. There is a whitish gray ring encircling the periphery of the iris.
What is B Photophobia is not a normally occurring change with aging, and would require further assessment. The other assessment data are common gerontologic differences and would not be unusual in a 76-year-old patient.
200
The nurse is reviewing the medical records for five patients who are scheduled for their yearly physical examinations in September. Which patients should receive the inactivated influenza vaccination (select all that apply)? a. A 76-year-old nursing home resident b. A 36-year-old female patient who is pregnant c. A 42-year-old patient who has a 15 pack-year smoking history d. A 30-year-old patient who takes corticosteroids for rheumatoid arthritis e. A 24-year-old patient who has allergies to penicillin and cephalosporins
What is A, B, D Current guidelines suggest that healthy individuals between 6 months and age 49 receive intranasal immunization with live, attenuated influenza vaccine. Individuals who are pregnant, residents of nursing homes, or are immunocompromised or who have chronic medical conditions should receive inactivated vaccine by injection. The corticosteroid use by the 30-year-old increases the risk for infection.
200
After the nurse teaches the patient with stage 1 hypertension about diet modifications that should be implemented, which diet choice indicates that the teaching has been effective? a. The patient avoids eating nuts or nut butters. b. The patient restricts intake of chicken and fish. c. The patient has two cups of coffee in the morning. d. The patient has a glass of low-fat milk with each meal.
What is D For the prevention of hypertension, the Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension (DASH) recommendations include increasing the intake of calcium-rich foods. Caffeine restriction and decreased protein intake are not included in the recommendations. Nuts are high in beneficial nutrients and 4 to 5 servings weekly are recommended in the DASH diet.
200
When a brain-injured patient responds to nail bed pressure with internal rotation, adduction, and flexion of the arms, the nurse reports the response as a. flexion withdrawal. b. localization of pain. c. decorticate posturing. d. decerebrate posturing.
What is C Internal rotation, adduction, and flexion of the arms in an unconscious patient is documented as decorticate posturing. Extension of the arms and legs is decerebrate posturing. Because the flexion is generalized, it does not indicate localization of pain or flexion withdrawal.
200
When assessing a newly admitted patient, the nurse notes pallor of the skin and nail beds. The nurse should ensure that which laboratory test has been ordered? a. Platelet count b. Neutrophil count c. White blood cell count d. Hemoglobin (Hgb) level
What is D Pallor of the skin or nail beds is indicative of anemia, which would be indicated by a low Hgb level. Platelet counts indicate a person's clotting ability. A neutrophil is a type of white blood cell that helps to fight infection.
200
The nasogastric (NG) tube is removed on the second postoperative day, and the patient is placed on a clear liquid diet. Four hours later, the patient complains of sharp, cramping gas pains. What action by the nurse is the most appropriate? a. Reinsert the NG tube. b. Give the PRN IV opioid. c. Assist the patient to ambulate. d. Place the patient on NPO status.
What is C Ambulation encourages peristalsis and the passing of flatus, which will relieve the patient’s discomfort. If distention persists, the patient may need to be placed on NPO status, but usually this is not necessary. Morphine administration will further decrease intestinal motility. Gas pains are usually caused by trapping of flatus in the colon, and reinsertion of the NG tube will not relieve the pains.
300
Following assessment of a patient with pneumonia, the nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance. Which assessment data best supports this diagnosis? a. Weak, nonproductive cough effort b. Large amounts of greenish sputum c. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute d. Resting pulse oximetry (SpO2) of 85%
What is A The weak, nonproductive cough indicates that the patient is unable to clear the airway effectively. The other data would be used to support diagnoses such as impaired gas exchange and ineffective breathing pattern.
300
Propranolol (Inderal) is prescribed for a patient diagnosed with hypertension. The nurse should consult with the health care provider before giving this medication when the patient reveals a history of: a. asthma. b. daily alcohol use. c. peptic ulcer disease. d. myocardial infarction (MI).
What is A Nonselective beta-blockers block beta 1- and beta 2-adrenergic receptors and can cause bronchospasm, especially in patients with a history of asthma. Beta-Blockers will have no effect on the patient’s peptic ulcer disease or alcohol use. Beta-Blocker therapy is recommended after MI.
300
The nurse has administered prescribed IV mannitol (Osmitrol) to an unconscious patient. Which parameter should the nurse monitor to determine the medication’s effectiveness? a. Blood pressure b. Oxygen saturation c. Intracranial pressure d. Hemoglobin and hematocrit
What is C Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic and will reduce cerebral edema and intracranial pressure. It may initially reduce hematocrit and increase blood pressure, but these are not the best parameters for evaluation of the effectiveness of the drug. Oxygen saturation will not directly improve as a result of mannitol administration.
300
The nurse is caring for a patient with a massive burn injury and possible hypovolemia. Which assessment data will be of most concern to the nurse? a. Blood pressure is 90/40 mm Hg. b. Urine output is 30 mL over the last hour. c. Oral fluid intake is 100 mL for the last 8 hours. d. There is prolonged skin tenting over the sternum.
What is A The blood pressure indicates that the patient may be developing hypovolemic shock as a result of intravascular fluid loss due to the burn injury. This finding will require immediate intervention to prevent the complications associated with systemic hypoperfusion. The poor oral intake, decreased urine output, and skin tenting all indicate the need for increasing the patient’s fluid intake but not as urgently as the hypotension.
300
A patient who has begun to awaken after 30 minutes in the postanesthesia care unit (PACU) is restless and shouting at the nurse. The patient’s oxygen saturation is 96%, and recent laboratory results are all normal. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Increase the IV fluid rate. b. Assess for bladder distention. c. Notify the anesthesia care provider (ACP). d. Demonstrate the use of the nurse call bell button.
What is B Because the patient’s assessment indicates physiologic stability, the most likely cause of the patient’s agitation is emergence delirium, which will resolve as the patient wakes up more fully. The nurse should look for a cause such as bladder distention. Although hypoxemia is the most common cause, the patient’s oxygen saturation is 96%. Emergence delirium is common in patients recovering from anesthesia, so there is no need to notify the ACP. Orientation of the patient to bed controls is needed, but is not likely to be effective until the effects of anesthesia have resolved more completely.
400
The nurse assesses the chest of a patient with pneumococcal pneumonia. Which finding would the nurse expect? a. Increased tactile fremitus b. Dry, nonproductive cough c. Hyperresonance to percussion d. A grating sound on auscultation
What is A Increased tactile fremitus over the area of pulmonary consolidation is expected with bacterial pneumonias. Dullness to percussion would be expected. Pneumococcal pneumonia typically presents with a loose, productive cough. Adventitious breath sounds such as crackles and wheezes are typical. A grating sound is more representative of a pleural friction rub rather than pneumonia.
400
A 56-year-old patient who has no previous history of hypertension or other health problems suddenly develops a blood pressure (BP) of 198/110 mm Hg. After reconfirming the BP, it is appropriate for the nurse to tell the patient that a. a BP recheck should be scheduled in a few weeks. b. dietary sodium and fat content should be decreased. c. there is an immediate danger of a stroke and hospitalization will be required. d. diagnosis of a possible cause, treatment, and ongoing monitoring will be needed.
What is D A sudden increase in BP in a patient over age 50 with no previous hypertension history or risk factors indicates that the hypertension may be secondary to some other problem. The BP will need treatment and ongoing monitoring. If the patient has no other risk factors, a stroke in the immediate future is unlikely. There is no indication that dietary salt or fat intake have contributed to this sudden increase in BP, and reducing intake of salt and fat alone will not be adequate to reduce this BP to an acceptable level.
400
A 46-year-old patient with a head injury opens the eyes to verbal stimulation, curses when stimulated, and does not respond to a verbal command to move but attempts to push away a painful stimulus. The nurse records the patient’s Glasgow Coma Scale score as a. 9. b. 11. c. 13. d. 15.
What is B The patient has a score of 3 for eye opening, 3 for best verbal response, and 5 for best motor response.
400
A patient is admitted for hypovolemia associated with multiple draining wounds. Which assessment would be the most accurate way for the nurse to evaluate fluid balance? a. Skin turgor b. Daily weight c. Presence of edema d. Hourly urine output
What is B Daily weight is the most easily obtained and accurate means of assessing volume status. Skin turgor varies considerably with age. Considerable excess fluid volume may be present before fluid moves into the interstitial space and causes edema. Although very important, hourly urine outputs do not take account of fluid intake or of fluid loss through insensible loss, sweating, or loss from the gastrointestinal tract or wounds.
400
When obtaining a health history from a 49-year-old patient, which patient statement is most important to communicate to the primary health care provider? a. “My eyes are dry now.” b. “It is hard for me to see at night.” c. “My vision is blurry when I read.” d. “I can’t see as far over to the side.”
What is D The decrease in peripheral vision may indicate glaucoma, which is not a normal visual change associated with aging and requires rapid treatment. The other patient statements indicate visual problems (presbyopia, dryness, and lens opacity) that are considered a normal part of aging.
500
The nurse provides discharge instructions to a patient who was hospitalized for pneumonia. Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates a good understanding of the instructions? a. “I will call the doctor if I still feel tired after a week.” b. “I will continue to do the deep breathing and coughing exercises at home.” c. “I will schedule two appointments for the pneumonia and influenza vaccines.” d. “I’ll cancel my chest x-ray appointment if I’m feeling better in a couple weeks.”
What is B Patients should continue to cough and deep breathe after discharge. Fatigue is expected for several weeks. The Pneumovax and influenza vaccines can be given at the same time in different arms. Explain that a follow-up chest x-ray needs to be done in 6 to 8 weeks to evaluate resolution of pneumonia.
500
Which blood pressure (BP) finding by the nurse indicates that no changes in therapy are needed for a patient with stage 1 hypertension who has a history of diabetes mellitus? a. 102/60 mm Hg b. 128/76 mm Hg c. 139/90 mm Hg d. 136/82 mm Hg
What is B ANS: B The goal for antihypertensive therapy for a patient with hypertension and diabetes mellitus is a BP <130/80 mm Hg. The BP of 102/60 may indicate overtreatment of the hypertension and an increased risk for adverse drug effects. The other two blood pressures indicate a need for modifications in the patient’s treatment.
500
A 41-year-old patient who is unconscious has a nursing diagnosis of ineffective cerebral tissue perfusion related to cerebral tissue swelling. Which nursing intervention will be included in the plan of care? a. Encourage coughing and deep breathing. b. Position the patient with knees and hips flexed. c. Keep the head of the bed elevated to 30 degrees. d. Cluster nursing interventions to provide rest periods.
What is C The patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) should be maintained in the head-up position to help reduce ICP. Extreme flexion of the hips and knees increases abdominal pressure, which increases ICP. Because the stimulation associated with nursing interventions increases ICP, clustering interventions will progressively elevate ICP. Coughing increases intrathoracic pressure and ICP.
500
A patient who was involved in a motor vehicle crash has had a tracheostomy placed to allow for continued mechanical ventilation. How should the nurse interpret the following arterial blood gas results: pH 7.48, PaO2 85 mm Hg, PaCO2 32 mm Hg, and HCO3 25 mEq/L? a. Metabolic acidosis b. Metabolic alkalosis c. Respiratory acidosis d. Respiratory alkalosis
What is D The pH indicates that the patient has alkalosis and the low PaCO2 indicates a respiratory cause. The other responses are incorrect based on the pH and the normal HCO3.
500
A 37-year-old female patient is hospitalized with acute kidney injury (AKI). Which information will be most useful to the nurse in evaluating improvement in kidney function? a. Urine volume b. Creatinine level c. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) d. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level
What is C GFR is the preferred method for evaluating kidney function. BUN levels can fluctuate based on factors such as fluid volume status and protein intake. Urine output can be normal or high in patients with AKI and does not accurately reflect kidney function. Creatinine alone is not an accurate reflection of renal function.