General
Pharmacology
Respiratory
Emergencies
Diabetic
Emergencies
Allergic
Reaction
Psychiatric
Emergencies
Hematologic
Emergencies
100

The study of the effects of medications on the body.

Pharmacodynamics

100

An active process in which the intercostal (rib) muscles and the diaphragm contract, expanding the size of the chest cavity and causing air to flow into the lungs.

Inspiration or Inhalation

100

The definition of Low Blood Sugar.

Hypoglycemia

100

An exaggerated immune response.

Allergic Reaction

100

The manner in which a person acts.

Behavior

100

Deficiency in the number of red blood cells in the circulation.

Anemia

200

The study of drugs, their sources, thier characteristics, and their effects.

Pharmacology

200

A passive process in which the intercostal (rib) muscles and the diaphragm relax, causing the chest cavity to decrease in size and force air from the lungs.

Expiration or Exhalation

200

The definition of High Blood Sugar.

Hyperglycemia

200

Something that causes an allergic reaction.

Allergen

200

When a patient's actions are not typical for the situation; is unacceptable or intolerable to the patient, the patient's family, or the community; or when the patient may harm self or others.

Behavioral Emergency

200

A vibration felt on gentle palpation, such as that which typically occurs within an arteriovenous fistula.

Thrill

300

Specific signs or circumstances under which it is appropriate to administer a drug to a patient.

Indications

300

Abnormal narrowing of the smaller airways of the lungs from conditions such as allergies or pulmonary conditions.

Bronchoconstriction

300

A hormone produced by the pancreas that facilitates the transfer of glucose in the body's cells.

Insulin

300

A hormone produced by the body. As a medication, it constricts blood vessels and dilates respiratory passages, and is used to relieve severe allergic reactions.

Epinephrine

300

A chronic mental disorder that affects how a person thinks, feels, and behaves. People with severe or untreated _____________ may seem like they have lost touch with reality.

Schizophrenia

300

Irreversible renal failure to the extent that the kidneys can no longer provide adequate filtration and fliud balance to sustain life.

End-Stage Renal Disease (ESRD)

400

Specific circumstances under which it is not appropriate and may be harmful to administer a drug to a patient.

Contraindication 

400

A form of noninvasive positive pressure ventilation (BPPV) consisting of a mask and a means of blowing oxygen or air into the mask to prevent airway collapse or to help alleviate difficulty breathing.

Continuous Positive Airway Pressure (CPAP)

400

A prolonged seizure or the situation in which a person suffers two or moreconvulsive seizures without regaining full consciousness.

Status Epilepticus

400

A severe or life-threatening allergic reaction in which blood vessels dilate, causing a drop in blood pressure , and the tissues lining thr respiratory system swell, interfering with the airway.

Anaphylaxis

400

Bizarre and/or aggressive behavior, shouting, paranoia, panic, violence toward others, insensitivity to pain, unexpected physical strength, and hyperthermia.

Excited Delirium

500

An unexpected effect of a medication in addition to its desired effect that may be potentially harmful to the patient.

Untoward Effect

500

A sensation experienced by a seizure patient right before the seizure that might be a smell, sound or general feeling.

Aura

500

Which of the following physiological effects directly causes the drop in blood pressure seen in anaphylactic shock?
A. Vasoconstriction and decreased capillary permeability
B. Vasodilation and increased capillary permeability
C. Bronchoconstriction and increased heart rate
D. Bronchodilation and decreased vascular permeability  

Answer :B 

Chemical mediators released during anaphylaxis, such as histamines, cause systemic vasodilation and increase capillary permeability. This causes fluid to leak out of the blood vessels, resulting in a drop in blood pressure (hypovolemic/distributive shock).

500

Inadequate breathing or respiratory arrest caused by a body position that restricts breathing.

Positional Asphyxia

600

Any action of a drug other than the desired action.

Side Effect

600

A condition that occurs as the result of high blood sugar (hyperglycemia), characterized by dehydration, altered mental status, and shock.

Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)

600

Which combination of symptoms best indicates a true, life-threatening anaphylactic reaction as opposed to a localized allergic reaction?
A. Urticaria (hives) and localized itching
B. Generalized flushing and nausea
C. Respiratory distress and signs of systemic shock (hypoperfusion)
D. Abdominal cramps and localized swelling  

Answer: C 

The defining characteristic of anaphylaxis is that it involves two or more body systems (e.g., respiratory compromise and shock) or a sudden drop in blood pressure, making it life-threatening compared to localized, skin-only reactions.

700
Which of the following represents the correct sequence of actions for medication administration by an EMT?


A) Verify the patient, medication, dose, route, and time; explain the procedure; document the action.

B) Check the expiration date; ask the patient to self-administer; document the patient's name.

C) Explain the procedure; verify the "Five Rights"; document the route; administer the medication.

D) Obtain an order from medical control; administer the medication; check the "Five Rights".


Answer: A. The correct sequence requires verifying the "Five Rights" of medication administration (Right Patient, Right Medication, Right Dose, Right Route, Right Time), explaining the intervention to the patient, and completing thorough documentation.

700

A seizure that affects only one part or one side of the brain.

Partial Seizure

700

You are preparing to assist a patient with their epinephrine auto-injector. Which of the following is a primary, life-saving mechanism of epinephrine in treating anaphylaxis?
A. It causes vasodilation and decreases the heart rate.
B. It causes vasoconstriction and relaxes the smooth muscles of the bronchioles.
C. It blocks the histamine receptors in the body.
D. It actively suppresses the patient's immune response to the allergen.  

Answer: B 

Epinephrine acts as a sympathetic nervous system stimulant. It constricts blood vessels to raise blood pressure and relaxes constricted smooth muscles in the lungs to open the airways.

800
Which of the following medications is actively carried on the ambulance and administered by an EMT to treat a severe allergic reaction? 

A) Atropine

B) Epinephrine 1:1,000

C) Albuterol

D) Naloxone


Answer: B. Epinephrine 1:1,000 (typically via auto-injector) is the primary medication EMTs administer to cause vasoconstriction (reversing shock) and bronchodilation (opening the airway) during anaphylaxis.

800

The period of time immediately following a tonic-clonic seizure in which the patient goes from full loss of consciousness back to a normal mental status.

Postictal Phase

800

When assisting a patient with an epinephrine auto-injector (such as an EpiPen), which of the following is the correct landmark and holding time?
A. Anterior portion of the upper arm; hold for 3 seconds
B. Lateral portion of the thigh; hold for 10 seconds
C. Lateral portion of the thigh; hold for 2 seconds
D. Anterior portion of the thigh; hold for 15 seconds

Answer B: The proper administration of an epinephrine auto-injector involves pressing it firmly into the lateral aspect of the thigh (the outer mid-thigh) and holding it in place for 10 seconds to ensure the medication is fully injected.

900
What is the difference between an agonist and an antagonist? 

A) An agonist blocks receptors, while an antagonist stimulates them.

B) An agonist stimulates receptors to produce a response, while an antagonist blocks other chemicals from binding.

C) An agonist causes systemic side effects, while an antagonist only affects local tissues.

D) An agonist is a prescribed medication, while an antagonist is an over-the-counter drug. 


Answer: B. Agonists bind to receptors and stimulate them to produce a desired action (e.g., Epinephrine). Antagonists bind to receptors and block other chemicals from attaching (e.g., Naloxone).

900

A 35-year-old female with a history of type 1 diabetes presents with deep, rapid breathing and an acetone (fruity) odor on her breath. She is responsive to verbal stimuli but disoriented. Her blood glucose reads "HIGH" on your glucometer. What is the primary cause of her deep, rapid respirations?

A. The body is blowing off excess carbon dioxide to compensate for metabolic alkalosis

B. The brain is hypoxic and triggering rapid breathing

C. The body is attempting to blow off excess acids (ketones) to compensate for metabolic acidosis

D. The patient is hyperventilating due to panic 

Correct Answer: C. The body is attempting to blow off excess acids (ketones) to compensate for metabolic acidosis


Rationale: Deep, rapid respirations in a diabetic patient are called Kussmaul respirations. They occur in Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) as a compensatory mechanism to rid the body of excess acids by exhaling carbon dioxide and acetone.

1000

You arrive on the scene of a 64-year-old patient with diabetes. He is supine in bed, unresponsive to painful stimuli, and snoring respirations are noted. Family members state his blood sugar is 25 mg/dL. What should be your immediate action? 

A. Insert an oropharyngeal (OPA) airway and apply high-flow oxygen via nonrebreather mask

B. Place the patient in a lateral recumbent position and administer oral glucose

C. Open the airway, assess breathing, and prepare for immediate transport

D. Open the airway, insert an airway adjunct, and check for a pulse 

Correct Answer: D. Open the airway, insert an airway adjunct, and check for a pulse


Rationale: While the patient is severely hypoglycemic, a patient who is unresponsive and unable to protect their own airway has a contraindication for oral glucose (risk of aspiration). Your first priority is always the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation).

1100

You are called for a 20-year-old female with an altered mental status. Her roommate says she takes insulin, but they are unsure when she last ate. Her blood glucose is 52 mg/dL. Her airway is patent, respirations are 22/min, pulse is 110, and skin is pale and diaphoretic. What is the correct protocol intervention? 

A. Administer 15 grams of oral glucose

B. Transport immediately to the closest facility

C. Administer supplemental oxygen via a nonrebreather mask

D. Assist the patient in self-administering her own prescribed insulin

Correct Answer: A. Administer 15 grams of oral glucose


Rationale: For a conscious, symptomatic patient with a low blood sugar (hypoglycemia), the standard EMT protocol is to administer a fast-acting sugar like oral glucose, provided the patient can swallow.

1200

You respond to a private residence for a patient who is "not acting right." The patient is a 35-year-old male who is confused and combative. His skin is cool, pale, and diaphoretic (sweaty), and his radial pulse is rapid. Which of the following is the most likely field impression?

A. Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)

B. Symptomatic hypoglycemia

C. Hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS)

D. Insulin shock 

Correct Answer: B. Symptomatic hypoglycemia


Rationale: Cool, pale, and clammy ("diaphoretic") skin is the hallmark sign of hypoglycemia (low blood sugar), which can lead to a rapid change in mental status. DKA and HHS present with warm/dry skin and signs of dehydration.