Show:
CONSENT & REFUSAL
THE DECEASED
THE DONT'S
LEGAL
COMMUNICATIONS
100

A type of consent in which the patient gives you verbal authorization for provision of care or transport.

What is expressed consent

100

A definitive sign of death that may include: dismemberment at the waist or neck/decapitation

What is: Obvious Mortal Damage

100
Threatening a person or causing a person fear of immediate bodily harm without person's consent.
What is Assault
100
An act that was enacted in 1996, providing for criminal sanctions as well as for civil penalties for releasing a patient's protected health information in a way not authorized by the patient.
What is HIPAA
100
A trusting relationship that you build with your patient
What is Rapport
200
Permission for treatment given by a competent patient after potential risks, benefits, and alternatives to treatment have been explained.
What is informed consent
200

A definitive sign of death when blood settles to the lowest point of the body, causing discoloration of the skin.

What is dependent lividity

200
Unlawfully touching a person; this includes providing medical care without consent.
What is Battery
200

Requirements for a DNR to be valid (Hint: there are 4 of them)

What is:

Clear statement of patient’s medical problem

Signature of patient or legal guardian

Signature of physician or other licensed healthcare provider

Expiration date valid within 12 months

200

Verbal and nonverbal communication techniques that encourage patients to express their feelings and to achieve a positive relationship.

What is Therapeutic communication

300
A type of consent in which the patient who is unable to give consent is given treatment under the legal assumption that he or she would want treatment.
What is implied consent
300

A definitive sign of death that occurs sometime between 2 and 12 hours after death and is seen in the stiffening of the body muscles

What is rigor mortis

300

Unilateral termination of care by the EMT without the patient's consent and without making provisions for transferring care to another health care professional with skills at the same level or higher.

What is abandonment

300

A competent adult appoints another individual to make medical treatment decisions on his or her behalf in the event that the person making the appointment loses decision-making capacity.

What is durable power of attorney for health care

300
A written record of the incident that describes the nature of the patient's injuries or illness at the scene and the treatment you provide.
What is PCR
400

What should you do when someone wants to refuse treatment or transport, but you think they are having a medical emergency: 

What is:

Identify if they are a competent adult capable of making an informed decision regarding their care (not confused, delusional, or suicidal)

  • Encourage them again to allow treatment.

  • Inform pt of the risks of refusing treatment up to and including potential death or disability

  • Contact Medical Control to make them aware of the situation

  • Ask pt to sign a refusal of care form (AMA)

  • Also obtain the signature of a witness

400

A definitive sign of death that depending on the temperature conditions, this occurs sometime between 40 and 96 hours after death includes decomposition of the body tissues

What is: Putrefacation

400
The unauthorized confinement of a person that lasts for an appreciable period of time.
What is False Imprisonment
400

To be protected by the Good Samaritan Laws you must meet these conditions: (Hint: there are 4)

What is: 

Act in good faith

Render care w/o expectation of compensation

Acted w/in your scope of practice

You did not act in a grossly negligent manner

400

Written protocols that allow EMS providers to perform patient care before or without establishing radio contact with a base hospital that have been signed by EMS system's medical director.

What is Standing orders

500

What are the 4 components of Negligence (state & define)

What is: Duty (EMT obligation to provide care consistent with the standard of care), Breach of Duty (EMT does not act/ doesn’t act within the standard of care), Damages (patient is physically or psychologically harmed), Causation (cause and effect relationship b/w breach of duty and damages done)

500

Written documentation giving permission to medical personnel not to attempt in the event of cardiac arrest.

What is DNR

500
The act of physically preventing a person from taking physical action.
What is Forcible Restraint
500
Accepted levels of medical care expected by reason of training and profession; determined by legal or professional peer organizations so that patients are not exposed to unnecessary risk or harm.
What is standard of care
500
A special base station radio that receives messages and signals on one frequency and then automatically retransmits them on a second frequency.
What is Repeater