Nephrology
Cardiology
Pulmonology
GI
Misc.
100

Most common cause of euvolemic hyponatremia.

SIADH

100

A 29 yo M presents with pleuritic chest pain and diffuse ST elevation of EKG.

Pericarditis

100

What are the indications for outpatient oxygen use in COPD?

SpO2<88% or PaO2<55%

100

What class of antibiotics is used to treat Prostatitis?

Fluoroquinolones or Bactrim

100

Fever, weight loss, constipation, muscle weakness, bone pain, normocytic anemia, renal insufficiency, lytic bone lesions.

Multiple myeloma

Dx= M spike on serum electrophoresis

200

A 26 yo F marathon runner presents with seizures and AMS. Her coach swears she hydrated aggressively both before and during the marathon. What is this? 

50 Bonus points: pathophysiology?

Exercise induced Hyponatremia—


large amount of hypotonic fluid ingestion + Excessive ADH excretion from non-osmotic stimuli (exertion, pain, nausea, hypoglycemia)

200

What two medication classes have been shown to decrease morbidity and mortality in heart failure and how?

Beta-blockers and ACE-i

Both slow cardiac remodeling: 

     -B-blockers--decrease epinephrine and norepinephrine)

     -ACE-I--decreased aldosterone

200

List four causes of ARDS.

  • Gram negative sepsis (LPS)
  • Trauma
  • Burns
  • Shock
  • Acute pancreatitis
  • pneumonia
  • aspiration
  • inhalation injury (barotrauma, smoke)
  • drowning
  • Fat embolism
  • amniotic fluid embolism
  • stem cell or lung transplant
  • massive transfusion
200

Treatment of ascites in decompensated cirrhosis?

Sodium restriction, spironolactone, and furosemide improve ascitic and peripheral fluid retention; 

Avoid ACE-I, ARBs, NSAIDs, and EtOH (ACE-I and ARBs cause organ hypoperfusion in those with decomp cirrhosis)

200

Pathophysiology of anemia of chronic disease?

Increased Hepcidin (acute phase reactant) --> decreased iron absorption and decreased iron release from Reticuloendothelial system --> decreased iron available to make RBCs --> microcytic to normocytic anemia and decreased reticulocyte count

300

What medication class offers renoprotection in diabetic nephropathy and renal artery stenosis and how? What do you need to monitor?

-ACEi: decreases angiotensin II --> dilation of efferent arterioles --> reduced intraglomerular pressure and ischemia

-Decreased GFR leads to a higher risk of AKI, so need to monitor renal function (Cr rise <30% acceptable)

-also monitor for hyperkalemia

300

You respond to a first team for a pt on the cardiology floor. Pt is a 71 yo M that is s/p acute MI 5 days ago. He had a 95% left main coronary occlusion and underwent a Coronary Artery Bypass Graft at that time. He began complaining of abrupt chest pain and shortness of breath 5 minutes ago. He is diaphoretic, pale, and appears to be in shock (JVD, tachycardia, hypotension). He has no audible murmur, but heart sounds are very distant. He then loses consciousness. What is the source of this patient’s sudden decline?

Ventricular free wall rupture --> cardiac tamponade (post-MI complication = 5 days-2 weeks)

300

Name the Light’s criteria? (3/3)

Transudative vs exudative pleural effusion. Transudative only if all three are met:

1. Pleural fluid protein/ serum protein = 0.5 or less

2. Pleural fluid LDH/Serum LDH ratio = 0.6 or less

3. Pleural fluid LDH < 2/3 upper limit of normal serum LDH

Low glucose = empyema, malignancy, or RA

300

Describe the pathogenesis of Hepatorenal syndrome.

Portal HTN --> splanchnic nitric oxide production --> systemic vasodilation --> end-organ hypoperfusion (decreased renal perfusion) --> Activated RAAS, sympathetic NS, and ADH release --> worsening volume overload

300

Name four antibiotics with Pseudomonas coverage.

  • Cefapime (4th gen cephalosporin)
  • Piperacillin/Tazobactam
  • Ceftolozane or Cefidercol (5th gen cephalosporins)
  • Ceftazidime (3rd gen ceph)
  • Any of the Carbapenems (Erta, Dori, Imipenem+Cilastatin, Meropenem)
  • Aztreonam (monobactam)
  • Tobramycin or Gentamycin (aminoglycoside)
  • Ciprofloxacin or Levofloxacin (Fluoroquinolones)
  • Polymyxin B or Colistin (only for MDR)
400

A 40 yo F with a history of SLE is followed by medicine for massive proteinuria (3.6 g/24hrs), periorbital and peripheral edema, and hypoalbuminemia. On day two of hospitalization, the patient has sudden onset unilateral flank pain and hematuria. What should you be concerned about and what is the etiology?

  • Renal vein thrombosis
  • Urinary loss of antithrombin III, protein C, and protein S leads to hypercoagulable state
400

First line medication for Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

Metoprolol: Increases filling time and end-systolic volume --> decrease LVOT obstruction

400

Name 4/7 components of the Wells criteria for PE.

  • Clinical symptoms of DVT
  • PE more likely than other Dx
  • Previous PE/DVT
  • Tachycardia (>100bpm)
  • Recent surgery or immobilization
  • Hemoptysis
  • Malignancy
400

What is the grading scale used to assess survival rate and likelihood of complications in cirrhosis? Name the 5 components.

Child-Pugh Score

Components: Albumin, Bilirubin, INR (coag), Ascites (distended abdomen), Encephalopathy; ABCDE

400

A 55 yo male is brought in by his wife with chief complaints of headache, chest pain, and altered mental status after he had been working in his garage. The pt is confused, drowsy, and weak on exam. Labs reveal severe metabolic acidosis (pH 7.14, lactate= 10mmol/L), normoglycemia, and you see ST-elevation on EKG. 

What is the initial and definitive management for this patient?

Carbon monoxide poisoning

Carboxyhemoglobin: >3% (non-smokers), >10-15% (smokers)

Initial management: 100% oxygen via non-rebreather

Definitive: Hyperbaric oxygen (neurologic manifestations, Acute MI, severe acidosis)

Sodium Bicarbonate delays clearance of CO

500

A 56 yo M presents with sudden onset SOB that is worse while lying flat. He had a similar presentation 6 months ago and responded well to diuretics. He has a history of HTN, CAD, a TIA, and a carotid endarterectomy. He is a current smoker with a 30 pack year history. His blood pression is 205/100, oxygen saturation is 87%, he has jugular venous distention, and bilateral lung crackles. His extremities are without edema. Labs show elevated serum bicarbonate, hypokalemia, and a creatinine of 2. What is the Dx?

-Flash pulmonary edema from Renal Artery Stenosis

- Renal ischemia --> activated RAAS --> sympathetic NS, ADH --> Na+ and water retention, generalized vasoconstriction, and HTN; Labs show secondary hyperaldosteronism (high bicarb/metabolic alkalosis and hypokalemia), can have flash pulmonary edema

500

75 yo M presents with occasional palpitations and episodes of sudden dizziness followed by syncope. He also complains of as generalized fatigue, dyspnea, and exercise intolerance. He had an anterior MI one month ago. On exam, you notice obvious pulsations in the jugular veins. What is the best next test? What are you likely to see?

EKG--Third degree heart block

Anterior myocardial infarcts can affect the AV node and are more likely to progress to third degree AV block

-obvious bounding jugular veins = canon A waves from AV dissociation --> Right atrium contracting against closed tricuspid valve

-Syncopal episodes = “Stokes-Adams attacks” = LOC from ventricular asystole

500

How is ARDS diagnosed (Berlin criteria)? (3/4)

1. Acute onset respiratory failure within a week of known predisposing factor or worsening symptoms.

2. Bilateral opacities on imaging

3. Hypoxemia (PaO2/FiO2 <300 mmHg

4. Cannot be accounted for by HF or fluid overload (PCWP<18)

500

How is ascites fluid evaluated to determine the etiology?

Serum albumin to ascites fluid albumin gradient (SAAG)

      1.1 or more = portal HTN

     <1.1 = not due to portal HTN; malignancy, TB, nephrotic syndrome

Total protein < 2.5 = cirrhosis or nephrotic syndrome

Neutrophils 250 or greater = SBP

500

What lab can be used to differentiate between an androgen secreting neoplasm of the ovary versus the adrenal gland in women?

DHEAS. 

Both ovarian and adrenal neoplasms secrete testosterone and DHEA. Only adrenal neoplasms secrete DHEAS (dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate)