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Hematology
Body Fluid and Urinalysis
Immunology
Microbiology
Blood Bank
100

The RDW is elevated on a CBC report. The smear would show: (p254, q237)

  1. hypochromia 

  2. anisocytosis 

  3. poikilocytosis

  4. macrocytosis 

anisocytosis


100

A urine specimen yields positive results for glucose and protein, but is otherwise unremarkable. These results likely indicate the patient has: (p225 q155)

  1. Diabetes mellitus

  2. Acute pyelonephritis

  3. Renal tubular disease 

  4. Acute interstitial nephritis 

Diabetes mellitus

In hyperglycemic disorders, such as diabetes mellitus, blood glucose concentrations are elevated and excess glucose is excreted in the urine. Patients also often develop proteinuria as the disease progresses.

100

After a penicillin injection, a patient rapidly develops respiratory distress, vomiting, and hives. This reaction is primarily mediated by? (p330, q116)

  1. IgG

  2. IgA

  3. IgM

  4. IgE

IgE


100

Which one of the following anaerobes is inhibited by sodium polyanethol sulfonate (SPS) (p422, q56)?

  1. Bacteroides fragilis

  2. Cutibacterium acnes

  3. Peptostreptococcus anaerobius

  4. Veillonella parvula        

Peptostreptococcus anaerobius

100

Transfusion of which of the following is needed to help correct hypofibrinogenemia due to DIC? (p25, q176)

  1. Whole blood 

  2. Fresh Frozen Plasma 

  3. Cryoprecipitated AHF 

  4. Platelets 

Cryoprecipitated AHF

cryoprecipitate AHF is used primarily for fibrinogen replacement


200

Elevation of the total white cell count above 11.0 x 10^9/L is termed? (p234, q107)

  1. Relative lymphocytosis

  2. Absolute lymphocytosis

  3. Leukocytosis

  4. Relative neutrophilic leukocytosis

leukocytosis

200

Which of the following crystals may be found in acidic urine? (p216 q112)

  1. Ammonium biurate 

  2. Calcium phosphate

  3. Calcium oxalate

  4. Triple phosphate 

Calcium oxalate



200

Which of the following is the most common humoral immune deficiency disease? (p331, q129)

  1. Bruton agammaglobulinemia

  2. IgG deficiency

  3. Selective IgA deficiency

  4. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome 

Selective IgA deficiency



200

The laboratory is considering adoption of rapid and sensitive “stand alone” method that detects Clostridioides difficile toxins A and B. Which one of the following testing methodologies will provide this? (p434, q110) 

  1. Cell culture cytotoxin assay

  2. Latex agglutination

  3. Lecithinase production

  4. NAAT

NAAT

200

A group A, Rh-positive infant of a group O, Rh-positive mother has a weakly positive direct antiglobulin test and a moderately elevated bilirubin 12 hours after birth. The most likely cause is: (p27, q191)

  1. ABO incompatibility

  2. Rh incompatibility 

  3. Blood group incompatibility due to an antibody to a low frequency antigen 

  4. Neonatal jaundice not associated with blood group 

ABO incompatibility

ABO HDFN occurs most commonly in group A or group B babies born to group O mothers and usually has a mild course

300

Which cells are involved in immediate hypersensitivity reactions? (p223, q27)

  1. Eosinophils

  2. Basophils

  3. Plasma cells

  4. Reactive lymphocytes

basophils



300

Patients that produce more than 3000 mL (3L) of urine in a 24-hour period are described as having: (p203 q31)

  1. Anuria

  2. Oliguria

  3. Nocturia

  4. Polyuria

Polyuria

300

Bone marrow transplant donors and their recipients must be matched for which antigen system? (p333, q142)

  1. ABO-Rh

  2. HLA

  3. CD4/CD8

  4. PIa1

HLA

mismatches in HLA antigens between donor and recipient of a BMT can lead to graft vs host disease

300

Which test can be used to diagnose infection and confirm eradication of Helicobacter pylori? (p433, q104)

  1. DNase

  2. Hippurate hydrolysis

  3. String test

  4. Urea breath test

Urea breath test

300

In cases where antepartum RhIG has been administered and anti-D is detected in the mother’s serum at delivery, what laboratory studies may help determine if the anti-D is from the antepartum RhIG, or due to maternal alloimmunization? (p29, q204)

  1. Determine Antibody titer of maternal anti-D 

  2. Repeat Antibody identification studies with room temperature incubation 

  3. Perform inhibition studies on anti-D with maternal saliva 

  4. Repeat antibody identification studies using AET-treated serum 

Determine Antibody titer of maternal anti-D

antepartum RhIG usually has an anti-D titer of <=4. Maternal anti-D titers are generally >16

400

A deficiency of Protein C is associated with which of the following? (p284, q415)

  1. Prolonged aPTT

  2. Decreased fibrinogen levels (<100 mg/dL)

  3. Increased risk of thrombosis

  4. Spontaneous hemorrhage

increased risk of thrombosis

Protein C is inherited as an autosomal dominant trait, and patients with heterozygous deficiency have an increased risk of thrombosis

400

A double-sequential enzyme reaction employing glucose oxidase and peroxidase is used to measure which of the following urinary analytes by reagent test strip?  (p207 q64)

  1. pH

  2. Nitrites 

  3. Glucose

  4. Ketones

Glucose


400

Biological false-positive VDRL reactions are frequently encountered in patients with? (p341, q204)

  1. Lupus erythematosus

  2. Acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS)

  3. Gonorrhea

  4. Tertiary syphilis 

Lupus erythematosus

Patients with SLE often produce anticardiolipin antibodies

400

Cerebrospinal fluid test results that are most consistent with viral meningitis include: (p423, 59)?

  1. Decreased protein level

  2. Increased glucose level

  3. Increased lactate level

  4. Lymphocytes predominant

Lymphocytes predominant

400

A drug-induced immune hemolytic anemia caused by a drug-independent antibody would have which of the following results? (p31, q218) 

  1. Positive direct antiglobulin test (DAT) with IgG; positive antibody screen 

  2. Positive DAT with IgG; negative eluate 

  3. Positive DAT with C3d; negative antibody screen 

  4. Negative DAT; positive antibody screen 

Positive direct antiglobulin test (DAT) with IgG; positive antibody screen

The antibody detected in drug-independent immune hemolytic anemia is indistinguishable from warm autoantibodies. The DAT is positive with IgG, the eluate and serum react with all cells tested.

500

What is the most common cause of inherited thrombophilia? (p286, q428)

  1. Antiphospholipid syndrome

  2. Prothrombin G20210A mutation

  3. Factor V Leiden

  4. hyperhomocysteinemia

Factor V Leiden

APC resistance is almost always due to a mutation in factor V that prevents protein C dependent cleavage and Factor V inhibition. 

500

Which of the following cells is most commonly associated with a non-clean-catch specimen and/or vaginal contamination? (p211 q85)

  1. White blood cells 

  2. Renal epithelial cells

  3. Squamous epithelial cells 

  4. Transitional epithelial cells

Squamous epithelial cells 



500

Which of the following statements about immunoglobulins is true? (p318, q48)

  1. Immunoglobulins are produced by T lymphocytes

  2. IgA class is determined by the gamma heavy chain

  3. IgA class exists as serum and secretory molecules

  4. There are only 2 subclasses of IgG

IgA class exists as serum and secretory molecules



500

Which of these specimen types is considered to be the most sensitive for the recovery of Brucella in cases of chronic infection? (p421, q52)

  1. blood

  2. urine

  3. bone marrow

  4. lymph node

bone marrow

500

A group B, Rh-negative patient has a positive direct antiglobulin test (DAT). Which of the following situations would occur? (p34, q237) 

  1. All major crossmatches would be incompatible 

  2. The weak D test and control would be positive 

  3. The antibody screening would be positive 

  4. The forward and reverse ABO groupings would not agree 

The weak D test and control would be positive

A positive DAT will interfere with weak D testing causing both the patient and control to demonstrate positive results. Any positive result in the control tube invalidates any results.