EXAM 1
EXAM 2
EXAM 3
EXAM 4
EXAM 5
EXAM 6
EXAM 7+MISC
100

1. Reasons for drug testing include all of the following Except:

A. Probation

B. Random employee testing

C. Pretravel testing

D. Pre employment testing

C. Pretravel testing

100

6. As a sample type for drug testing, hair can be characterized as being:

A. Easy to tamper with

B. Noninvasive

C. Inexpensive

D. Invasive

B. Non invasive

100

11. Most waived hematology tests use blood from:

A. An artery

B. A vein

C. Capillary

D. An evacuated tube

C. Capillary

100

16. Of the following clinical tests, which has the lowest complexity?

A. Group A strep

B. Urine pregnancy

C. Metabolic panel

D. Culture inoculation

B. Urine pregnancy

100

25. Which of the following describes a medication route?

A. Emetic

B. Parenteral

C. Anaphylactic

D. Antitussive

B. Parenteral

100

38. Which of the following is a testing mechanism used to investigate the reaction of an antigen with its specific antibody?

A. Immunoassay

B. Chromatography

C. Retention time

D. Dilution

A. Immunoassay

100

48. Another term used for medical substance is?

A. Addiction

B. Parenteral

C. Synthetic

D. Medication

D. Medication

200

5. Testing for alcohol will most likely use what sample type?

A. Breath

B. Urine

C. Blood

D. Hair

A. Breath

200

. To ensure specimen integrity you should avoid:

A. Requiring a photo ID

B. Using a bluing agent in the toilet

C. Having the donor wash their hands prior to giving a specimen

D. Allowing women to take their purses into the stall

D. Allowing women to take their purses into the stall

200

12. The temperature of a urine sample used for drug testing should closely resemble?

A. Body temperature

B. Room temperature

C. Refrigeration temperature

D. Freezer temperature

A. Body temperature

200

17. Which of the following would indicate a dependence on a substance or behavior?

A. Antidote

B. Addiction

C. Dilution

D. Hypnotic

B. Addiction

200

24. A procedure in which the body is penetrated or entered is known as?

A. Synthetic

B. Emergency

C. Invasive

D. Parenteral

C. Invasive

200

39. What specimen type for drug testing has the lowest viability (testing window)?

A. Blood

B. Hair

C. Breath

D. Urine

D. Urine

200

49. Potency is defined as?

A. The length of time for a substance to be adsorbed

B. The length of time for a substance to travel through a tube

C. The forcing of medication into the body or cavity

D. The strength of a medicine

D. The strength of a medicine

300

4. What is the most commonly used specimen for drug testing?

A. Skin

B. Hair

C. Breath

D. Urine

D. Urine

300

8. A physician trained in the cause and nature of diseases, who is in charge of interpreting lab results and tissue testing would hold which position?

A. Laboratory manager

B. Pathologist

C. Clinical laboratory technologist

D. Clinical laboratory technician

B. Pathologist

300

13. The highest percentage of tests performed fall under what level of complexity?

A. High

B. Middle

C. Moderate

D. Low

C. Moderate

300

18. Which of the following is a substance known to neutralize the effects of poison?

A. Antidote

B. Addiction

C. Dilution

D. Hypnotic

A. Antidote

300

23. What is the medical term used to describe the capacity at which a person can endure a specified amount of medication without an adverse effect?

A. Immunoassay

B. Retention time

C. Drug tolerance

D. Chromatography

C. Drug tolerance

300

40. Three levels of testing complexity have been defined by?

A. OSHA

B. CLIA

C. JCAHO

D. NCCLS

B. CLIA

300

50. A sedative is designed to do which of the following?

A. Induce a soothing or tranquilizing effect

B. Raise a patients blood pressure

C. Remove or suppress coughing

D. Increase urine output

A. Induce a soothing or tranquilizing effect

400

3. Which of the following specimens in NOT commonly used for drug testing?

A. Urine

B. Skin

C. Blood

D. Breath

B. Skin

400

9. Responsibilities for a clinical laboratory assistant include?

A. Venipuncture

B. Specimen preparation

C. Clinical order entry

D. All of the above

D. All of the above

400

''DAILY DOUBLE''

The acronym 'COC' commonly refers to:

A. Central operation council

B. Custody of California

C. Chain of custody

D. Chain of contamination

C. Chain of custody

400

19. An antitussive is used to prevent.

A. Vomiting

B. Addiction

C. Coughing

D. Fever

C. Coughing

400

22. An object that is synthetic is?

A. An inactive substance

B. Something that increases dependency

C. Artificially prepared

D. Handled thoughtlessly

C. Artificially prepared

400

41. An example of a moderate complexity test is:

A. Troponin I

B. Urine pregnancy

C. Fecal occult blood

D. All of the above

A. Troponin I

400

DOCTOR ORDERED A CBC. WHAT DEPT & ADDITIVE AND COLOR TUBE

HEMATOLOGY

EDTA

LAVENDER

500

2. The Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act categorized each laboratory procedure as being one of the following Except:

A. High complexity

B. Middle complexity

C. Waived complexity

D. Moderate complexity

B. Middle complexity

500

10. What position performs testing in the lab under direction of the lab scientist?

A. Laboratory clerk

B. Clinical laboratory aide

C. Clinical laboratory technician

D. Clinical laboratory technologist

C. Clinical laboratory technician

500

15. Special handling procedures are in place for drug testing in order to:

A. Prevent tampering

B. Promote misidentification

C. Interfere with results

D. All of the above

A. Prevent tampering

500

20. What is known to modify one or more of the functions of a living organism?

A. Tolerance

B. Drug

C. Placebo

D. Immunoassay

B. Drug

500

21. A placebo is best defined as?

A. An agent used to stop or weaken ulcers

B. An inactive substance

C. Substance used to neutralize poison

D. an agent that prevents coughing

B. An inactive substance

500

42. What is an example of an invasive collection for drug testing?

A. Urine

B. Blood

C. Breath

D. None of the above

B. Blood

500

NAME 5 SIZES OF SYRINGE

3CC

5CC

10CC

20CC

30CC

600

26. A phlebotomist should most likely be concerned with which of the following being tampered with?

A. Personal computer

B. Patients medication

C. Patients sample

D. Coworkers timecard

C. Patients sample

600

27. A patient who is being prepped for surgery would most likely have what moderate complexity test done?

A. Dipstick for urinalysis

B. ABO/Rh blood typing

C. Hemoglobin level

D. Blood glucose level

B. ABO/Rh blood typing

600

28. An example of a high complexity test would include?

A. Urine sediment examination

B. Urine pregnancy test

C. Histo compatibility

D. Group B strep

C. Histo compatibility

600

29. A complete blood count or cholesterol level is considered:

A. Simple test

B. High complexity test

C. Ultra complexity test

D. Moderate complexity test

D. Moderate complexity test

600

30. All of the following will require a chain of custody Except:

A. Drug or alcohol level testing

B. DNA analysis

C. Ovulation testing

D. Paternity testing

C. Ovulation testing

600

45. What would be taken by a patient to induce vomiting?

A. Placebo

B. Diuretic

C. Antitussive

D. Emetic

D. Emetic

600

DOCTOR ORDER A LIPD PANEL HOW MANY HOURS SHOULD THEY FAST WHAT COLOR TUBE ADDITIVE AND WHATS IN THAT PANEL?

8 TO 12 FASTING 

TIGER TOP/SST SERUM SEPERATOR TUBE

LDL TRYGLICERIDES CHOLETEROL VDRL

HDL

700

31. Which of the following statements regarding a chain of custody is False?

A. a specimen must be handled using special procedures

B. A chain of custody should maximize the number of people handling the specimen

C. Every person that handles the specimen must sign the same form

D. Specimens must be placed in a locked container before transportation

A. Labeling the specimen only if you don’t sign the chain of custody form

700

33. A clinical laboratory aide will principally responsible for performing:

A. Differential diagnoses

B. Clinical test ordering

C. Supervising all laboratory staff

D. Restocking supplies

D. Restocking supplies

700

34. Which of the following is NOT a qualification for a clinical laboratory technologist?

A. Bachelor degree

B. Medical technology training

C. Post doctoral specialization

D. Knowledge of available tests and normal ranges

C. Post doctoral specialization

700

35. Symptoms associated with anaphylactic shock include:

A. Vascular constriction

B. Airway obstruction

C. Difficulty breathing

D. All of the above

D. All of the above

700

36. A patient who is in need of controlling their blood pressure will likely be prescribed.

A. Diuretic

B. Antitussive

C. Antihypertensive

D. Sedative

B. Diuretic

700

47. An injection is defined as?

A. The removal of fluid from the body or cavity

B. The forcing of fluid into the body of cavity

C. Substance used to counteract poison

D. Inactive substance used to take the place of medication

B. The forcing of fluid into the body of cavity

700

WHAT TEST CAN I RUN WITH ADDITIVE EDTA K2

ABO/RH FACTOR