Miscellaneous
When is a pilot on an IFR flight plan responsible for avoiding other aircraft?
A. At all times when not in radar contact with ATC.
B. When weather conditions permit, regardless of whether operating under IFR or VFR.
C. Only when advised by ATC.
B. When weather conditions permit, regardless of whether operating under IFR or VFR.
What response is expected when ATC issues an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back the entire clearance as required by regulation.
B. Read back those parts containing altitude assignments or vectors and any part requiring verification.
C. Read-back should be unsolicited and spontaneous to confirm that the pilot understands all instructions.
B. Read back those parts containing altitude assignments or vectors and any part requiring verification.
When should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff?
A. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
B. When parallel runways are in use.
C. When departing from a runway intersection.
C. When departing from a runway intersection.
What does the ATC term “Radar Contact” signify?
A. Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive separation from all aircraft while in contact with this radar facility.
B. Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight-following will be provided until radar identification is terminated.
C. You will be given traffic advisories until advised the service has been terminated or that radar contact has been lost.
B. Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight-following will be provided until radar identification is terminated.
What is the distance from the Threshold Bar to the Fixed Distance (Aiming Point Markers)?
A. 500'
B. 1000'
C. 3000'
B. 1000'
The most current en route and destination flight information for planning an instrument flight should be obtained from
A. the ATIS broadcast.
B. the FSS.
C. Notices to Airmen.
B. the FSS.
Which clearance items are always given in an abbreviated IFR departure clearance? (Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or more fixes which identify the initial route of flight.
B. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name, Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.
B. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name, Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.
During a takeoff into IMC at a controlled field with low ceilings, you should contact departure
A. before entering the clouds.
B. when the tower instructs the change.
C. upon reaching the traffic pattern altitude.
B. when the tower instructs the change.
For IFR planning purposes, what are the compulsory reporting points when using VOR/DME or VORTAC fixes to define a direct route not on established airways?
A. Fixes selected to define the route.
B. There are no compulsory reporting points unless advised by ATC.
C. At the changeover points.
A. Fixes selected to define the route.
What is the length of the Touchdown Zone from the Threshold Bar?
A. 500'
B. 1000'
C. 3000'
C. 3000'
From what source can you obtain the latest FDC NOTAMs?
A. Aeronautical Information Manual.
B. Chart Supplement.
C. FAA FSS.
C. FAA FSS.
An abbreviated departure clearance “...CLEARED AS FILED...” will always contain the name
A. and number of the STAR to be flown when filed in the flight plan.
B. of the first compulsory reporting point if not in a radar environment.
C. of the destination airport filed in the flight plan.
C. of the destination airport filed in the flight plan.
When should your transponder be on Mode C while on an IFR flight?
A. Only when ATC requests Mode C.
B. At all times if the equipment has been calibrated, unless requested otherwise by ATC.
C. When passing 12,500 feet MSL.
B. At all times if the equipment has been calibrated, unless requested otherwise by ATC.
While performing a VFR practice instrument approach, Radar Approach Control assigns an altitude or heading that will cause you to enter the clouds. What action should you take?
A. Continue as directed.
B. Advise “unable” and remain clear of clouds.
C. Deviate as needed; then rejoin the approach.
B. Advise “unable” and remain clear of clouds.
On a three-bar Visual Approach Slope Indicator (VASI) one red light over two white lights indicates
A. Above glide path
B. On the lower glide path
C. On the upper glide path
C. On the upper glide path
A Transition Area is
A. The Class E airpsace extending upward from 700 feet or more for airports with an Instrument Approach Procedure
B. The Class E airspace pilots may use to transition from VFR flight to IFR flight
C. The area which aircraft are required to use to transition from the En Route altitude to intercept the Instrument Approach Procedure
A. The Class E airpsace extending upward from 700 feet or more for airports with an Instrument Approach Procedure
When departing from an airport not served by a control tower, the issuance of a clearance containing a void time indicates that
A. The pilot must advise ATC as soon as possible, but no later than 30 minutes, of their intentions if not off by the void time.
B. ATC will assume the pilot has not departed if no transmission is received before the void time.
C. ATC will protect the airspace only to the void time.
A. The pilot must advise ATC as soon as possible, but no later than 30 minutes, of their intentions if not off by the void time.
What is the recommended climb procedure when a nonradar departure control instructs a pilot to climb to the assigned altitude?
A. Maintain a continuous optimum climb until reaching assigned altitude and report passing each 1,000 foot level.
B. Climb at a maximum angle of climb to within 1,000 feet of the assigned altitude, then 500 feet per minute the last 1,000 feet.
C. Maintain an optimum climb on the centerline of the airway without intermediate level-offs until 1,000 feet below assigned altitude, then 500 to 1,500 feet per minute.
C. Maintain an optimum climb on the centerline of the airway without intermediate level-offs until 1,000 feet below assigned altitude, then 500 to 1,500 feet per minute.
You have not yet been cleared for the approach, but you are being vectored to the ILS approach course. It is clear that you will pass through the localizer course unless you take action. You should
A. turn outbound and complete the procedure turn.
B. continue as assigned and query ATC.
C. turn inbound and join the final approach course.
B. continue as assigned and query ATC.
This system consists of a synchronized pair of flashing lights on each side of the runway threshold.
A. Threshold markers
B. Touchdown zone markers
C. Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL)
C. Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL)
En Route Low Altitude Charts include:
A. FSS frequencies, NAVAID frequencies, and ARTCC frequencies
B. Victor airways, NAVAIDS, and obstacle clearance heights
C. Limits of controlled airspace, military training routes, and special use airspace
C. Limits of controlled airspace, military training routes, and special use airspace
What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads “...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...”?
A. The pilot must maintain 6,000 feet until reaching the IAF serving the destination airport, then execute the published approach procedure.
B. Climbs may be made to, or descents made from, 6,000 feet at the pilot’s discretion.
C. The pilot may utilize any altitude from the MEA/MOCA to 6,000 feet, but each change in altitude must be reported to ATC.
B. Climbs may be made to, or descents made from, 6,000 feet at the pilot’s discretion.
Which report should be made to ATC without a specific request when not in radar contact?
A. Entering instrument meteorological conditions.
B. When leaving final approach fix in bound on final approach.
C. Correcting an ETA any time a previous ETA is in error in excess of 4 minutes.
B. When leaving final approach fix in bound on final approach.
While on an IFR flight plan, you should notify ATC of a variation in speed when
A. ground speed changes more than 5 knots.
B. average TAS changes 10 knots or 5 percent.
C. ground speed changes 10 MPH or more.
B. average TAS changes 10 knots or 5 percent.
These lights are red for the last 1000 feet
A. Runway Centerline Lights
B. Runway Edge Lights
C. Medium Intensity Approach Lighting System with Runway Alignment (MALSR)
A. Runway Centerline Lights