mixed
mixed
mixed
mixed
100

Which of the following situations can promote slow would healing primarily by causing constriction of small blood vessels?

A. Smoking
B. Poor nutrition
C. Obesity
D. Diabetes mellitus
E. Bacterial infection

A. Smoking

Smoking promotes slow wound healing primarily by causing constriction of small blood vessels. The nicotine in cigarettes causes vasoconstriction, which reduces blood flow to the wound site. This impairs oxygen and nutrient delivery, both of which are essential for proper wound healing.

100

The usual restrictions on release of medical information without the patient's authorization are suspended if which of the following situations exist?

A. A patient is suspected of committing a crime
B. The patient is incompetent and has a legal guardian
C. the patient is a public figure
D. Information is stored in a computer
E. The patient is a 17-year-old emancipated minor

B. The patient is incompetent and has a legal guardian.

When a patient is incompetent (e.g., due to mental incapacity, unconsciousness, etc.) and has a legal guardian, the guardian is authorized to make decisions and access the patient’s medical information. In such cases, restrictions on the release of medical information are lifted for the guardian, since they act in the patient’s legal and medical interest.

100

Which of the following is the first information the medical assistant should request to help determine the urgency of scheduling a patient who telephones requesting a same-day appointment?

A. Date of last visit and previous history of the stated problem
B. Nature, onset, duration, and intensity of the problem
C. The appointment time that is most convenient for the patient
D. Whether anything makes the problem better or worse
E. Name, address, telephone number and age

B. Nature, onset, duration, and intensity of the problem

When a patient calls for a same-day appointment, the first priority is to gather information about the symptoms to assess the urgency of the situation. The nature, onset, duration, and intensity of the problem will help the medical assistant determine if the issue is urgent and requires immediate attention or if it can wait for a later time.

This information is critical to:

  • Identify emergency conditions (e.g., chest pain, difficulty breathing, severe abdominal pain)

  • Decide if the patient needs to be scheduled immediately or later in the day.

100

Which of the following best describes subjective information in the medical case history?

A. Abnormal results on CT scan report?
B. Laboratory results
C. Findings on physical examination
D. Patient's family history
E. Kidney biopsy report

D. Patient's family history 

Subjective information in a medical case history refers to data reported by the patient that cannot be directly measured or observed by the clinician. It includes:

  • Symptoms (e.g., pain, fatigue)

  • Medical, social, and family history

  • Lifestyle habits

  • Anything the patient says rather than what is observed or tested

200

Which of the following parts of Medicare covers the cost of hospital care?

A. Part C
B. Part D
C. Part B
D. Part A

D. Part A

Medicare Part A covers hospital care, including:

  • Inpatient hospital stays

  • Skilled nursing facility care (under certain conditions)

  • Hospice care

  • Some home health care

200

A patient with cyanosis, cool clammy skin, hypotension, altered consciousness, rapid pulse and rapid breathing would be exhibiting signs of which of the following conditions?

A. Shock
B. Stroke
C. Hypothermia
D. Obstructed airway
E. Heat stroke

A. Shock 

The symptoms described — cyanosis, cool clammy skin, hypotension, altered consciousness, rapid pulse, and rapid breathing — are classic signs of shock. Shock is a life-threatening condition where there’s inadequate perfusion of tissues and organs, leading to oxygen deprivation.

200

Which of the following is a part of the physical examination that best describes a test of the reflexes?

A. Swallowing while the physician feels the thyroid gland
B. Listening to bowel sounds through the abdomen wall
C. Tapping the posterior chest well
D. Asking the patient to say "Ahh"
E. Stimulating the outer margin of the sole of the foot

E. Stimulating the outer margin of the side of the foot

Stimulating the outer margin of the sole of the foot is a test of the Babinski reflex, which is part of the neurological examination. It assesses reflexes and motor pathways, particularly the function of the corticospinal tract.

  • In adults, a normal response is curling of the toes.

  • An abnormal response (toes fan out and the big toe dorsiflexes) may indicate neurological damage.

200

Which of the following situations requires both action and documentation by the physician?

A. An appointment for pulmonary function testing is made for a patient at a local hospital.
B. The patient telephones to change an appointment for a physical exam from morning to afternoon.
C. A referral to a center for visual disturbances is scheduled for the patient.
D. The patient telephones to report to the medical assistant that the medication prescribed has been taken and he is feeling much better.
E. The patient telephones asking that a schedule II prescription for pain medication be refilled and the request is granted.

E. The patient telephones asking that a schedule II prescription for pain medication be refilled and the request is granted. 

Schedule II medications (e.g., opioids like oxycodone or morphine) are highly regulated controlled substances with strict federal and state requirements. When a refill or new prescription for such a medication is issued:

  • The physician must take direct action (approve and prescribe it).

  • Documentation is legally required to track controlled substance use and justify the medical decision.

This helps prevent misuse, ensures compliance with DEA regulations, and protects both the patient and provider.

300

Which of the following describes a state statute that sets the requirements for licensure of physicians?

A. National Health Planning & Resource Development Act
B. Statute of Frauds
C. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
D. Patients' Bill of Rights
E. Medical Practice Act

E. Medial Practice Act

The Medical Practice Act is a state statute that outlines the requirements for licensure of physicians, including:

  • Educational qualifications

  • Examination requirements

  • Standards of professional conduct

  • Grounds for disciplinary actions

300

Which of the following demonstrates voluntary muscle actions?

A. Pupil dilation
B. Heartbeat
C. Flexion
D. Peristalsis
E. Breathing

C. Flexion

Flexion is a voluntary muscle action, meaning it is consciously controlled. It involves the contraction of skeletal muscles to bend a joint — for example, bending the elbow or knee.

300

Termination of the physician-patient relationship can take place appropriately when which of the following actions occur?

A. The patient sends a letter to the physician refusing any further care and the physician sends a written response accepting, while offering referrals and medical records to the patient.
B. The last office note is documented to return for further treatment as needed.
C. Further office appointments are denied by the medical assistant.
D. The patient's medical record is flagged as inactive.
E. At a scheduled appointment, the physician refuses to examine the patient or give further care to the patient due to noncompliance by the patient.

A. The patient sends a letter to the physician refusing any further care and the physician sends a written response accepting, while offering referrals and medical records to the patient

This option describes a formal, mutual, and legally appropriate termination of the physician-patient relationship. Termination is considered proper when:

  1. The patient initiates the termination (e.g., refusal of further care), and

  2. The physician responds in writing, formally acknowledging the termination, offering continuity of care (e.g., referrals), and making medical records available.

300

Which of the following is a lab test commonly performed on a specimen from a patient taking furosemide (Lasix)?

A. Thyroid-stimulating hormone assay
B. Potassium levels
C. Hemoglobin analysis
D. White blood count
E. C-reactive protein

B. Potassium levels

Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic used to treat conditions like hypertension, edema, and congestive heart failure. One of its most important side effects is the loss of potassium through urine, which can lead to hypokalemia (low blood potassium levels).

For this reason, monitoring potassium levels is a standard and essential lab test for patients taking furosemide.

400

A patient comes to the family practice physician's office for a routine physical examination. By requesting an examination, the patient has consented to which of the following procedures?

A. Taking a biopsy of a localized skin nodule
B. Determining blood pressure in the lower legs by Doppler
C. Testing knee jerk reflexes
D. Testing the heart by echocardiogram
E. Drawing a specimen for blood gases

C. Testing knee jerk reflexes

When a patient presents for a routine physical examination, they give implied consent for non-invasive, low-risk procedures that are standard parts of such an exam. Testing knee jerk reflexes is a basic neurological assessment and clearly falls within the scope of a routine physical. 

400

Which of the following is an electrolyte that has an important influence on the muscle activity of the heart?

A. Phosphorus
B. Chloride
C. Potassium
D. Acid phosphatase
E. Amylase

C. Potassium

Potassium is a crucial electrolyte that plays a major role in the electrical activity and muscle contraction of the heart. It helps regulate:

  • The heart’s rhythm

  • Cardiac muscle excitability

  • Action potentials in cardiac cells

Both hyperkalemia (high potassium) and hypokalemia (low potassium) can cause dangerous arrhythmias.

 

400

The timing of an autoclave load should begin when the proper pressure is reached and which of the following is achieved?

A. The desired temperature is reached
B. Steam begins to flow from the exhaust valve
C. The autoclave door is hot to the touch
D. The preheat period has begun
E. The door is secured tightly

A. The desired temperature is reached 

In an autoclave, sterilization timing should begin only after both the correct pressure and the desired temperature are reached. These conditions ensure that the load is exposed to the proper environment for effective microbial destruction.

  • For example, typical sterilization conditions are 121°C (250°F) at 15 psi for 15–20 minutes.

  • Starting the timer before reaching temperature would result in incomplete sterilization.

400

Which of the following is a vasodilator most commonly used to ease the pain of angina?

A. Aspirin
B. Nitroglycerin
C. Coumadin
D. Digitalis
E. Codeine

B. Nitroglycerin

Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that works by relaxing the smooth muscle in blood vessel walls, leading to dilation of coronary arteries. This improves blood flow to the heart muscle and reduces the oxygen demand, making it highly effective for relieving the chest pain of angina.

It can be administered sublingually, as a spray, patch, or tablet, and provides rapid relief during angina episodes.



500

Which of the following is the term for an abnormal increase of red blood cells in urine?

A. Anuria
B. Uremia
C. Oliguria
D. Pyuria
E. Hematuria

E. Hematuria

Hematuria refers to the presence of red blood cells (RBCs) in the urine, which is abnormal and can indicate various conditions such as urinary tract infections, kidney stones, trauma, or glomerular disease.

500

Which of the following terms describes the telescoping of the intestine into itself?

A. Herniation
B. Deglutition
C. Volvulus
D. Intussusception
E. Obstipation

D. Intussusception

Intussusception is a condition where a segment of the intestine telescopes into an adjacent part of the intestine. This can lead to:

  • Bowel obstruction

  • Compromised blood flow

  • Ischemia or necrosis of the affected bowel segment

It is most common in infants and young children, often presenting with intermittent abdominal pain, vomiting, and "currant jelly" stools.

500

The price for a kit of 10 pregnancy tests is $35. If ordered in quantities of three kits or more, the price of 10 pregnancy tests is $30. What is the unit cost per test if 40 tests are ordered?

A. $4.00
B. $10.00
C. $30.00
D. $3.50
E. $3.00

E. $3.00

Step 1: Understand the pricing

  • 1 kit = 10 tests

  • Price for 1–2 kits = $35 per kit

  • Price for 3 or more kits = $30 per kit

Step 2: Determine how many kits are needed for 40 tests

  • 40 tests ÷ 10 tests per kit = 4 kits

Since 4 kits are being ordered, this qualifies for the discounted price of $30 per kit.

Step 3: Calculate the total cost

  • 4 kits × $30 = $120

Step 4: Calculate the unit cost per test

  • $120 ÷ 40 tests = $3.00 per test

500

Which of the following is a suture material that is absorbable?

A. Catgut
B. Dacron
C. Silk
D. Nylon

A. Catgut

Catgut is a natural absorbable suture material made from the intestines of sheep or cows. It is commonly used for internal suturing where stitches need to be absorbed by the body over time and do not require removal.

There are different types of catgut, such as plain and chromic, which differ in how long they take to be absorbed.