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Conditions
Massage skills + Tqs
Miscellaneous
O, I or A
Fill in the blank
100
This condition involves abnormal positioning of the head and neck relative to the body
What is Torticollis
100
This technique may be applied slowly and carefully for a cervical herniation
What is Long Axis Traction
100
What are the four stages of a migraine?
What is Prodome, Aura, Attack, Postdrome
100
Name the muscle: A: UNILATERAL- laterally tilts the pelvis and LF of vertebral column BILATERAL- fixes the last rib during inhalation and forced exhaltion
What is QL
100
A compression of the lower trunk of the brachial plexus, (C8-T1), along with the _____________ and in some cases the ________________
What is Subclavian Artery & Subclavian Vein
200
The use of Kernig's test, Vertebral Artery Test and dermatomal test are good rule outs for what condition?
What is Migraine
200
If a client comes in with a disc herniation and can tolerate a prone position, what should not be applied?
What is NO ABDOMINAL PILLOW
200
Name the muscle with this presentation. Pain located in the FRONTAL area (may cross to the other side).Pain deep in the ear, cheek and/or molars.Postural dizziness, possible syncope.Tinnitus.Nausea without vomiting.Vertigo and balance problems.Localized sweating or blanching of the skin
What is SCM (Clavicular Division)
200
Name the muscle: O: Ligamentum nuchae, SPs of C7-T3 I: Mastoid process and lateral portion of superior nuchal line
What is Splenius Capitis
200
The degeneration of the annular fibres of an intervertebral disc and changes to the ___________(from a gel to a fibrous structure), resulting in the loss of disc height and decreased ROM.
What is Nucleus Pulposis
300
What are 3 main S +S for pre eclampsia?
What is a) increased BP b) edematous weight gain c) proteinuria
300
What two techniques are CI'd when treating a pregnant client
What is fascial (abdomen + low back) & joint play
300
The 3 stages in DDD (in correct order)
What is Dysfunction, Instability and Stabilization
300
Name the muscle: O: distal half of anterior surface of humerus I: Tuberosity and coronoid process of ulna
What is Brachialis
300
_______________: Headaches arising from trigger points in the neck and thorax as far down as T10
What is Spinally mediated headaches
400
This condition can cause potential diastasis recti, oligohydraminios and disseminated intravascular coagulation
What is Pregnancy (Pergert)
400
To reduce abnormal positioning of the head and neck with Torticollis, What is the most appropriate re-position?
What is DE ROTATE HEAD FIRST, THEN LF the head to unaffeceted side.
400
This condition is also known as hyperabduction syndrome
What is Pec Minor Syndrome
400
What are the O I + A of Iliacus
What is O: Iliac Fossa I: Lesser Trochanter A: Hip flexion, Hip ER, Hip Add
400
The Scottie Dog Fracture is also known as ____________
What is Spondylolysis
500
Significant narrowing of the spinal canal can compress this bundle of nerves resulting in low back pain, pain radiating down one leg, saddle paraesthesia, loss or changes in bowel and bladder control, muscle weakness and sexual dysfunction.
What is Cauda Equina Syndrome
500
This Trp referral is also known as the "subdeltoid bursitis mimicker"
What is Supraspinatus
500
These two muscles are short on the opposite side of a typical torticollis
What is Splenius Capitis and Splenius Cervicis
500
Name the muscle: O: Bodies of C5-T3, TVPs of C3-C5 I: Tubercle on anterior arch of atlas, bodies of the axis C3-C4 and Tvps of C5 and C6
What is Longus Colli
500
The annulus fibrosis ruptures or pierces allowing the nucleus pulposis to enter the epidural space and compress a nerve root.
What is Disc Extrusion