Professional Nursing
Legalities/Ethics
Safety
Communication
Infection
Nutrition
Admission and Discharge
Assessment
100

An LPN is working under the supervision of an RN in the hospital. Which of the following tasks can the LPN perform? 

A) Administer IV chemo.

B) Develop a nursing diagnosis and care plan.

C) Administer oral medications and monitor vital signs.

D) Independently initiate blood transfusion therapy. 

C. 

LPNs are trained to provide basic nursing care, which includes administering oral medications and monitoring vital signs. However, they cannot independently develop care plans, administer IV chemotherapy, or initiate blood transfusions, as these tasks require an RN’s level of training.

100

 Which of the following best describes the principle of patient autonomy in nursing ethics?
A. The nurse makes decisions on behalf of the patient.
B. Patients have the right to make their own healthcare decisions.
C. The nurse must follow the physician’s orders without question.
D. The nurse can override the patient’s wishes if they disagree with the decision.

Correct Answer: B
 Rationale: Autonomy is an ethical principle that ensures patients have the right to make their own healthcare decisions, as long as they are mentally competent. Nurses must respect these choices, even if they disagree with them.

100

A confused patient keeps trying to get out of bed without assistance, increasing their fall risk. What is the best action for the LPN?
A. Apply physical restraints immediately to prevent injury.
B. Move the patient to a room closer to the nurses’ station and use a bed alarm.
C. Lower all four bedrails to make it easier for the patient to get out of bed.
D. Leave the patient alone to allow them to settle down.

Correct Answer: B

 Rationale: Preventing falls is a key patient safety goal. Using a bed alarm and keeping the patient closer to supervision helps ensure safety while avoiding unnecessary restraint use, which should only be used as a last resort.

100

When communicating with a patient who speaks a different language, what should the LPN do?
A. Speak louder and slowly to help the patient understand.
B. Use gestures to explain the message.
C. Use an interpreter to ensure accurate communication.
D. Assume that the patient understands if they nod in agreement.

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Using an interpreter ensures that communication is accurate and clear, reducing the risk of misunderstandings and promoting patient safety. Speaking loudly or using gestures may not guarantee comprehension, and assuming understanding can lead to errors in care.

100

The LPN is caring for a patient diagnosed with a Clostridium difficile (C. diff) infection. Which of the following actions by the LPN is correct?
A. Use alcohol-based hand sanitizer after patient contact.
B. Use contact precautions and wash hands with soap and water.
C. Place the patient on airborne precautions.
D. Disinfect the room with a regular disinfectant after patient discharge.

Correct Answer: B
 Rationale: C. diff is resistant to alcohol-based hand sanitizers, so soap and water are required for hand hygiene after patient contact. Contact precautions should be used, and the room must be disinfected with bleach-based products to kill the bacteria. Airborne precautions are not necessary for C. diff, as it spreads via spores.

100

A patient is recovering from surgery and is prescribed a clear liquid diet. Which of the following foods is appropriate for this diet?
A. Creamed soup
B. Chicken broth
C. Mashed potatoes
D. Custard

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A clear liquid diet includes liquids that are transparent and free from solid particles, like chicken broth. Creamed soups and mashed potatoes are not clear and contain solids, while custard contains dairy, which is generally not part of a clear liquid diet.

100

Which of the following is not an essential part of the admission process?

A) Identify the patient and ensure the correct wristband is in place.

B) Complete an initial assessment

C) Prepare the room for the patient's arrival.

D) Provide a bed bath upon arrival to the unit.

E) Document a height and weight.  

Correct answer: D

Rationale: While some patient's might benefit from a bed bath upon admission, it is not a required step. 

100

The LPN is performing an assessment of a patient with suspected dehydration. Which of the following is the most reliable indicator of dehydration?

A. Dark yellow urine
B. Weight gain
C. Dry, cracked lips
D. Orthostatic hypotension

Correct Answer: D
 Rationale: Orthostatic hypotension (a drop in blood pressure when changing positions) is a reliable indicator of dehydration, as it suggests the body's inability to compensate for decreased fluid volume. While dark yellow urine and dry lips can indicate dehydration, orthostatic hypotension is a more definitive sign that requires immediate attention.

200

 In a healthcare team, which of the following actions by an LPN requires immediate intervention by an RN?
A. Reinforcing patient education after the RN has provided initial teaching
B. Performing a sterile dressing change on a surgical wound
C. Initiating a plan of care for a newly admitted patient
D. Collecting data for an RN to use in patient assessment

Correct Answer: C
 LPNs assist in patient care but do not have the authority to initiate a care plan. Only RNs are responsible for assessing patients and formulating initial care plans. While LPNs can reinforce education, perform some sterile procedures, and collect data, they must work under RN supervision.

200

 A patient refuses a prescribed blood transfusion due to religious beliefs. What should the RN do?
A. Administer the transfusion anyway, as it is necessary for survival.
B. Explain to the patient that they do not have the right to refuse treatment.
C. Respect the patient’s decision and notify the healthcare provider.
D. Request a court order to force treatment.

Correct Answer: C

 Rationale: Patients have the legal right to refuse treatment based on their beliefs. The nurse should respect the decision and inform the healthcare provider to discuss alternative options.

200

The LPN notices a liquid spill on the hospital floor in a busy hallway. What is the appropriate action?
A. Find a janitor to clean it and continue with patient care.
B. Warn patients and staff to avoid the area but leave the spill.
C. Immediately clean the spill or mark the area to prevent falls.
D. Walk around the spill and continue with other duties.

Correct Answer: C

 Rationale: Workplace safety is a shared responsibility. Spills should be cleaned up immediately or marked with a sign to prevent slips and falls, which are a common cause of injury in healthcare settings.

200

 An LPN is caring for an elderly patient who seems withdrawn and avoids eye contact. How should the nurse respond to ensure effective communication?
A. Assume that the patient is uninterested and focus on other tasks.
B. Encourage the patient to talk but avoid making direct eye contact.
C. Sit at the patient’s level, speak slowly and clearly, and allow time for responses.
D. Ask the patient directly why they are avoiding communication.

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Sitting at the patient’s level and allowing time for responses creates an environment where the patient feels comfortable, respected, and heard. Speaking slowly and clearly helps ensure the patient understands, especially if there are hearing or cognitive concerns.

200

 An LPN observes a fellow nurse failing to wash their hands before a procedure. What is the most appropriate action?
A. Ignore it, assuming the other nurse knows best.
B. Immediately report the nurse to the state board of nursing.
C. Remind the nurse about proper hand hygiene and patient safety.
D. Tell the patient that their nurse is not following infection control protocols.

C

Patient safety and infection control are legal and ethical responsibilities of nurses. Addressing the issue with the colleague first promotes professional accountability and teamwork. If the behavior continues, it should be reported to the appropriate supervisor.

200

 A diabetic patient asks why they should limit carbohydrate intake. Which of the following is the best explanation for this recommendation?
A. "Carbohydrates cause your blood sugar to rise quickly, which can lead to hyperglycemia."
B. "Carbohydrates cause your blood pressure to rise, which can lead to hypertension."
C. "Carbohydrates are not as important as protein in managing diabetes."
D. "Carbohydrates are essential for energy, so they should be avoided entirely to control blood sugar."

Correct Answer: A
 Rationale: Carbohydrates are broken down into glucose in the body, which can cause a rapid increase in blood sugar levels, especially in diabetic patients. Limiting carbohydrate intake helps in managing blood glucose levels and preventing hyperglycemia. The statement about avoiding carbohydrates entirely is incorrect, as they are an essential energy source, but moderation is key.

200

 An LPN is preparing a patient for discharge after treatment for a stroke. Which of the following is an essential step in the discharge process for this patient?

A. Ensure the patient has a follow-up appointment with a neurologist.
B. Recommend that the patient drive to their follow-up appointments.
C. Provide the patient with an exercise regimen to be followed immediately.
D. Instruct the patient to discontinue medications unless otherwise instructed.

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A follow-up appointment with a neurologist or appropriate healthcare provider is critical after a stroke to monitor recovery and prevent future complications. The patient may need adjustments in medications or therapy, and driving may not be safe right after a stroke. An exercise regimen should be prescribed carefully and gradually. Medications should never be discontinued without physician approval.

200

 When performing an abdominal assessment, the LPN knows that the correct order of assessment is: Inspection, Auscultation, Palpation, and Percussion. Why is auscultation performed before palpation?
A. Palpating the abdomen before auscultating may alter bowel sounds.
B. Percussion must be done first to assess the organ size.
C. Palpation will help locate the areas where bowel sounds should be heard.
D. Inspection should always be done after palpation to observe any changes.

Correct Answer: A
 Rationale: Palpating the abdomen before auscultating can alter the bowel sounds due to the movement and pressure applied to the abdomen. To get accurate auscultation findings, the abdomen should be palpated after auscultation.

300

 An LPN notices that a patient’s blood pressure has dropped significantly over the last hour. What is the best immediate action?
A. Increase the patient’s IV fluid rate
B. Notify the RN or healthcare provider immediately
C. Administer oxygen without an order
D. Document the findings and recheck in one hour

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: LPNs are responsible for monitoring patients and recognizing significant changes in condition. However, they must report critical findings to an RN or physician rather than independently making care decisions, such as increasing IV fluids or administering oxygen without an order.

300

 A nursing student asks an LPN to explain the concept of "negligence" in nursing. Which of the following is the best example?
A. A nurse administers medication at the wrong time, but the patient is unharmed.
B. A nurse does not check a patient’s identification before giving medication, leading to a severe allergic reaction.
C. A nurse follows a physician’s order even though the patient refuses the treatment.
D. A nurse refuses to take an extra shift due to fatigue.

 B
 Rationale: Negligence occurs when a nurse fails to provide the standard of care, resulting in harm to the patient. In this case, not verifying the patient’s identity before medication administration led to an adverse outcome.

300

The LPN is reinforcing discharge instructions for a patient taking anticoagulants. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

A. "I will use an electric razor instead of a regular one to prevent cuts."
B. "I should avoid contact sports and activities that could cause injury."
C. "I can take aspirin for headaches if needed."
D. "I need to watch for signs of unusual bleeding, such as nosebleeds or bruising."


Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Aspirin is a blood thinner and can increase bleeding risk in patients taking anticoagulants. This requires further teaching to ensure patient safety.

300

The LPN is communicating a patient's vital signs to the healthcare provider over the phone. Which of the following is the most appropriate way to communicate this information?
A. Provide all the patient's history, including family background, before stating the vital signs.
B. Be brief, state the facts, and offer to provide additional information as needed.
C. Use medical terminology only, assuming the provider is familiar with the patient's condition.
D. Leave out details about the vital signs if they seem normal to avoid overwhelming the provider.

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Effective communication involves providing clear, concise, and relevant information. Being brief and to the point ensures the healthcare provider receives the necessary details without unnecessary background, but is still able to request additional information if needed.

300

 An LPN is assisting an RN with a central line dressing change. The LPN observes the RN touch a sterile field with their bare hand. What should the LPN do?

A. Ignore it since the RN is responsible for sterile technique.
B. Inform the RN immediately that the sterile field is contaminated.
C. Continue with the procedure but report the incident later.
D. Take over the dressing change to prevent further contamination.

Correct Answer: B
 Rationale: Maintaining sterility is a shared responsibility in patient safety. The LPN must immediately inform the RN so they can correct the issue and prevent infection.

300

The LPN is caring for a patient with kidney disease. Which of the following foods would be considered an appropriate choice for this patient?

A. Grilled chicken breast.
B. A boiled egg.
C. A serving of beans.
D. A baked potato.

Correct Answer: D
 Rationale: Baked potatoes are low in protein and can be part of a restricted protein diet for kidney disease. Grilled chicken, eggs, and beans are all high-protein foods and may be limited in patients with kidney disease to prevent the buildup of waste products.

300

A patient is being discharged after successful surgery. The LPN provides discharge instructions, including information about medication use and follow-up appointments. Which of the following should the LPN do next?
A. Ask the patient if they have any questions.
B. Document the discharge instructions in the medical record.
C. Complete the discharge paperwork.
D. Review the instructions with the family and sign the forms.

Correct Answer: A
 Rationale: After providing discharge instructions, it is important to ask the patient if they have any questions to ensure understanding. This helps to identify any gaps in the patient's knowledge about their care after discharge. Documentation and completing the necessary paperwork should follow once the patient confirms understanding.

300

The LPN is conducting a neurological assessment on a patient. Which of the following findings would indicate the need for immediate follow-up?

A. The patient responds with slurred speech
B. The patient’s pupils are reactive to light.
C. The patient is alert and oriented to person, place, and time.
D. The patient is unable to recall the date and time but remembers family members.

Correct Answer: A
 Rationale: Slurred speech indicate a neurological deficit or worsening condition. This requires immediate follow-up to assess further and prevent complications. The other options indicate normal or relatively mild findings, though they should still be noted.

400

Who established the first nursing philosophy based on restoration and health maintenance. 

Florence Nightingale

400

 A nurse accidentally administers the wrong medication to a patient but notices before harm occurs. What is the best ethical action?
A. Report the error to the RN or supervisor and document it properly.
B. Stay silent since the patient was not harmed.
C. Correct the mistake privately and avoid documentation.
D. Only report the mistake if the patient has a negative reaction

Correct Answer: A

 Rationale: Veracity (truthfulness) and accountability are key nursing ethics principles. Even if no harm occurred, the nurse must report the error to ensure transparency, patient safety, and future prevention.

400

 A patient with dementia has been attempting to leave the facility multiple times. The nurse has already tried verbal redirection, providing engaging activities, and moving the patient closer to the nurses’ station. What is the next best intervention?

A. Apply a vest restraint to prevent the patient from wandering.
B. Request a physician’s order for a sedative to calm the patient.
C. Implement a bed alarm and assign a sitter for close supervision.
D. Lock all exit doors to prevent the patient from leaving.

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Restraints should only be used as a last resort. Using a bed alarm and providing close supervision (such as a sitter) maintains safety while respecting the patient’s rights and dignity.

400

A patient’s family member becomes upset and expresses anger toward the nurse, stating, "You never told me my mom was deteriorating! Why didn’t you warn me?" How should the LPN respond?
A. Defend the care provided and explain that the patient's condition worsened suddenly.
B. Apologize for the perceived lack of communication and offer to provide more information about the patient’s condition.
C. Tell the family member to calm down and avoid raising their voice in the hospital.
D. Ignore the family member’s concerns and continue caring for the patient.

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Active listening and empathy are key to effective communication. The LPN should acknowledge the family member's frustration, apologize for any misunderstanding, and offer to explain the patient's condition in detail. This response helps to de-escalate the situation and fosters trust between the nurse and family member.

400

The LPN is caring for a patient with a central venous catheter (CVC) who develops signs of infection, including fever and redness around the insertion site. What is the nurse’s priority action?
A. Discontinue the catheter and notify the healthcare provider.
B. Clean the site with an alcohol swab and apply a new dressing.
C. Assess the catheter site and notify the healthcare provider of findings.
D. Administer the prescribed antibiotics before taking any further action.

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The LPN should assess the catheter site for signs of infection (redness, swelling, drainage) and immediately notify the healthcare provider. Prompt assessment is essential for identifying any complications. The healthcare provider may order cultures or antibiotics based on the assessment.

400

A patient has an NG tube and is receiving tube feeds. The patient asks for the head of the bed to be flat so he can take a nap. How should the LPN respond? 

Do not lie the patient flat. HOB must be at least 30* to reduce aspiration. 

400

During a patient’s admission assessment, which of the following is the LPN's most important responsibility?
A. Obtain a detailed medical history and current medications.
B. Complete a head-to-toe physical assessment.
C. Assess the patient's understanding of the treatment plan.
D. Review and confirm the patient's insurance information.

Correct Answer: B
 Rationale: The admission assessment involves completing a head-to-toe physical assessment to evaluate the patient’s condition upon admission. The LPN should focus on identifying any immediate health concerns. Obtaining a medical history, confirming insurance, and assessing understanding of the treatment plan are also important, but the physical assessment is the priority.

400

The LPN is assessing a 75-year-old patient who has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The patient is complaining of increased shortness of breath, and the LPN observes that the patient is using accessory muscles to breathe. Which of the following findings should the LPN report immediately to the healthcare provider?

A. Increased respiratory rate with shallow breathing.
B. Presence of a productive cough with green sputum.
C. A slight increase in oxygen saturation from 88% to 90%.
D. The patient is unable to complete a sentence without pausing for breath.

Correct Answer: B
 Rationale: Green sputum can indicate an infection, which may worsen the patient's COPD and result in complications. This requires immediate attention from the healthcare provider. Increased use of accessory muscles, shallow breathing, and difficulty completing a sentence are concerning signs, but the presence of green sputum suggests an acute infection, which should be reported immediately.

500

What regulates the scope of nursing practice and protects the public health?

The Nurse Practice Act

500

A patient at the end of life wants to die at home, but the family wants to continue life saving measures. The nurse contacts the doctor about the patient's request. What is this an example of?

Advocacy

500

A post-operative patient is receiving intravenous  hydromorphone  via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. During a routine assessment, the LPN finds the patient unresponsive with a respiratory rate of 7 breaths per minute and oxygen saturation of 82%. The patient's skin is cool and slightly cyanotic. What immediate nursing action should the LPN take to ensure patient safety?

Answers may vary! 

500

Name one therapeutic communication technique and provide an example. 

Active listening, empathy, silence, paraphrasing,  reflection, summarizing, validation, open-ended questions, etc.

500

A patient is diagnosed with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) and requires wound care. Which PPE must the LPN wear when changing the patient’s dressing?

Contact precautions (gown and gloves)

500

A patient is diagnosed with dysphagia. The healthcare provider explains that the patient has level 2 dysphagia, which affects the ability to swallow certain foods and liquids. Which of the following types of foods would be most appropriate for a patient with level 2 dysphagia?

A. Pureed foods and thickened liquids.
B. Soft, moist foods that require minimal chewing.
C. Solid foods like meats, vegetables, and whole fruits.
D. Thin, clear liquids and crunchy snacks.  

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Level 2 dysphagia typically refers to the ability to swallow soft, moist foods that require minimal chewing. This includes foods like moist casseroles, tender meats, and soft vegetables. Pureed foods are more appropriate for level 1 dysphagia, while solid foods and thin liquids are more difficult for patients with level 2 dysphagia to swallow safely, increasing the risk of aspiration.

500

Ideally, when does the discharge process start?

At admission

500

An LPN is assessing a 60-year-old male patient who presents with unilateral leg swelling and redness, as well as complaints of pain in the affected leg. The patient has a history of deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following is the most critical finding to assess in the patient?

A. Pain on dorsiflexion of the foot.
B. Presence of a positive Homans’ sign.
C. Decreased pedal pulses in the affected leg.
D. Leg swelling that is warm to the touch.

Correct Answer: C
 Rationale: The presence of decreased pedal pulses in the affected leg could indicate a compromised blood flow, which is a serious complication of DVT. The LPN should prioritize this finding, as impaired circulation may lead to further complications such as pulmonary embolism. Pain with dorsiflexion (Homans' sign) and warmth are important but secondary to assessing circulation.