Cardiac
Ischemia of the myocardial tissue affects electrical conductivity leading to this common complications post MI
what are Arrhythmias.
What on the EKG signifies a STEMI vs and NSTEMI?
This an antiarrhythmic drug delays repolarization of myocardial cells and lengthens the refractory period - what class of drug is this?
~ psychosocial concerns post MI to consider
ST elevation
K-blocking agent (amiodarone)
Normal p-wave, QRS complex and T wave, HR between 60bpm and 100bpms what rhythm?
what is normal sinus
Greater than 100 is called?
less than 60 is called?
Absence of electrical activity is called?
In the acute phase of major burns fluid loss from the burned surface can lead to what intravascular complication?
what is hypovolemia and possible hypovolemic shock
Hypovolemic shock associated with burns is also referred to as (more specifically) - what is the primary treatment for this?
How do we monitor for fluid volume status vs hydration status?
Client-controlled analgesia has been ordered to deliver 0.5 mg every 15 minutes. You have a hydromorphone (Dilaudid) syringe with 100 mg/25 mL available. How many mL will be delivered with each demand dose?
what is 0.125 mls
Initial Assessment of a Trauma patient includes ABCDE which means?
what is airway, breathing, circulation, disability, exposure.
What part of the health history would be concerning for highest prevalence of associated morbidity and mortality and nurses would provide education on?
This class of drugs are given to decreased heart rate and improve cardiac output (not an inotrope) which is ideal in clients at risk for myocardial infarction.
what are beta blockers.
What ARE the Inotropic Drugs?
Beta-2 blockers should be avoided in clients with what disease?
Adverse effects of the thiazide diuretic's include?
This rhythm has two atypical QRS complexes which suggests a lack of oxygen or an electrolyte imbalance
what are premature ventricular contractions
This "staging" of burn presents usually red or mottled in appearance usually very painful due to exposed nerve endings and involves the epidermis and part of the dermis.
what is a partial-thickness burn (not superficial and not deep).
With finger/hand and toes/feet burns, what is crucial to remember when applying dressings
A client needs to receive keflex 575 mg IV q 6 hr. The recommended concentration is 25 mg/mL. How many milliliters of solution will you need for an appropriate dilution.
what is 23mls
A lower rib injury is likely to cause what complication; therefore, the nurse must assess the client for this injury.
what is a liver laceration (12th rib fracture)
Classic assessment findings associated with V. Fib, pulseless V tach, PEA and asystole.
what is absent breath sounds, absent pulses.
Clients who are hypotensive, low dose dopamine infusion acts on the dopamine-1 receptors located where to create vasoconstriction?
Coronary, Cerebral, Renal receptors
If Valsalva maneuvers are ineffective, this drug can be used to treat SVT.
what is adenosine
Knowing that inhalation injuries are a potential life threatening complication of a thermal burn, what assessments should be done first and what lab would be the best for assessing respiratory function
what is respiratory assessment status and an ABG.
After respiratory (airway/breathing) what else should be assessed and how do you assess it?
Your client weighs 210 pounds and requires a dosage of 0.5 mcg/kg/min of Dobutrex. Dobutrex 750mg is diluted in 500mL of NS. What is the flow rate in mL/hr?
what is 1.9 ml/hr
The trauma triad of death is a term describing the lethal combination of what
what are hypothermia, metabolic acidosis, and coagulopathy
Clients who have a confirmed thrombosis, such as a Pulmonary Embolism, are treated with what continuous infusion?
what is heparin.
Bleeding precautions for your heparin gtt include what? This also applies for thrombolytic therapy too
What other drug would be given with a client on a heparin gtt and patient education?
What labs go with what drug?
Classic Symptoms of a PE?
No razors, soft bristle toothbrush, protect clients skin, monitoring for s/s bleeding/bruising.
Take same time each day, avoid OTC herbal products, limit leafy green vegetables, report s/s of bleeding to MD
warfarin (Coumadin)
PT/INR - coumadin
PTT - heparin
The unique finding on EKG that suggests this rhythm has a sawtooth pattern between a narrow QRS complex which is demonstrated on this rhythm strip.
what is atrial flutter.
How does this differ from Atrial Fibrillation?
What symptoms would a patient exhibit when in A.Fib?
This drug may be administered as is acts by blocking/stopping increased gastric acid secretion to prevent and treat stress ulcers.
what is a histamine 2-blocker (dine)
why is this given for Burn victims
A Lidocaine drip is infusing at 10 mL/hr on the client. Fluid concentration is 1 Gram/450 mL D5W. How many mg/min is the client receiving
what is 0.37 mg/min
Initially, a drowning victim will present with what vital sign symptoms due to the activation of the sympathetic nervous system.
what is tachycardia and hypertension
Multiple factors can increase the workload of the left ventricle that increase resistance such as
what are aortic stenosis or hypertension
In order to reduce afterload (to reduce the resistance on the left ventricle) what class and/or drug can be given?
~Nitrates - Nitroprusside
what class of drugs work by blocking conversion of angiotensin one to angiotensin II.
This type of tachycardia presents with a rate over 140 bpm and has a buried p-wave.
what is SVT.
What are nursing interventions performed when a client presents in SVT.
Which fluid is considered NOT safe for large scale fluid volume resuscitation as it can worsen fluid shifting and the clients blood pressure?
what is dextrose 5%
Your client weighs 188 pounds and is receiving Diprivan 1gram/150mL at 12 mL/hr via IV pump. How many mcg/kg/min is the client receiving?
what is 15.6 mcg/kg/min
Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine are elevated in what disease process that can be caused by wide spread muscle breakdown from trauma/falls or venom from a snakebite
what is rhabdomyolysis
CSM assessments are crucial in snake, spider venomous bites what would be the most critical finding?