CAD
Angina Pectoris
PAD
PVD
MS problems
100

Which allergy increases the risk when undergoing a cardiac catheterization ?

A. PCN

B. Morphine

C. Shellfish 

D. Eggs 

C. Shellfish

Iodine which is the dye used, contains shellfish products 

100

A nurse is teaching about a new dx of angina pectoris. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?

A. the pain lasts longer than 20 mins

B. Pain is often relieved with sitting up

C. Anxiety and stress can trigger pain

D. The pain persists with rest

C. 

100

What are the 6 Ps

Pain

Pallor

Polythermia

Parasthesia

Paralysis 

Pulselessness

100

Will we pass this test?

HELL YEAH

100

A nurse is assessing a patient who was admitted with a fractured tibia. The patient reports increasing pain, numbness, and swelling in the affected leg. On examination, the nurse notes the leg is tense and firm to touch. Which of the following interventions should the nurse prioritize?

A) Elevate the leg above heart level.

B) Administer prescribed analgesics.

C) Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

D) Apply a warm compress to the affected area.

Certainly! The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider immediately.


**Rationale:**


Acute compartment syndrome is a serious condition that occurs when increased pressure within a confined muscle compartment compromises circulation and function of the tissues. The symptoms the patient is experiencing—intense pain, numbness, swelling, and a tense, firm leg—are classic signs of this condition. Timely intervention is crucial to prevent irreversible muscle and nerve damage, so notifying the healthcare provider is the priority action. 


While analgesics may help manage pain, elevating the leg or applying warmth could potentially exacerbate the situation, as they might further increase swelling or pressure within the compartment. Immediate medical evaluation and intervention, which may include fasciotomy, are essential for effective management.

200

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client in regards to reducing RF for CAD. Which of the following indicates understanding of the teaching? SATA

 a. I should limit my exercise

b. I must stop smoking

c. I will limit my fast food intake

d. I need to monitor my weight

e. I will stop consuming alcohol

B, C, D

a- sedentary lifestyle increases risk for obesity and contributes to development of HTN and heart disease

E- the client does not have to stop consuming alcohol, it should be limited

200

A nurse on the telemetry unit is caring for a client who has unstable angina and is reporting chest pain with a rating of 6/10. The nurse gives 1 SL nitro tab. After 5 mins, the client states the chest pain is now 2/10. Which of the following should the nurse take ?

A. Initiate IV access

B. Call Rapid Response

C. Obtain ECG

D. Administer another nitro tab

D b/c it can be given 5 mins after the first one if client is still experiencing pain

200

What number or range  on the ABI test would indicate PAD?

<0.9

200

Name 5 nursing interventions or educations to prevent DVT?

•LMW Heparin, Heparin SQ, Coumadin (PT/INR- needs a bridge)

•Graduated compression stockings (specific to the patient)

•Sequential Compression Devices (SCD’s)

•Isometric exercises while resting

•Encourage ambulation

•Elevate lower extremities above level of the heart while at rest

•Weight loss, regular exercise, smoking cessation

200

A patient with a recent leg fracture presents to the emergency department with severe pain that is disproportionate to the injury. The nurse notes the patient has diminished pulse and increased swelling in the affected leg. What is the priority nursing intervention?

A) Document the findings in the patient’s chart.

B) Apply ice to the affected area.

C) Assess for signs of infection.

D) Monitor vital signs closely.

Certainly! The correct answer is to apply ice to the affected area.


**Rationale:**


In the context of acute compartment syndrome, applying ice can help reduce swelling and manage pain; however, it’s important to note that this is typically a temporary measure. The key issue in this scenario is that the patient is showing signs of compromised circulation, indicated by the diminished pulse and severe pain. 


While monitoring vital signs is essential, the priority is to address the immediate signs of potential compartment syndrome. Documenting findings is important but does not address the urgent need for intervention. In this case, applying ice can help manage symptoms until further assessment and intervention can be performed, such as notifying the healthcare provider for potential surgical intervention. 


Remember that in actual practice, the priority might shift based on the overall clinical picture and facility protocols, but immediate action to manage the situation is crucial.

300

A nurse is caring for a patient with coronary artery disease (CAD) who is experiencing angina pectoris. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?

A) Administer nitroglycerin as prescribed.

B) Assess the patient's vital signs.

C) Instruct the patient to rest in a comfortable position.

D) Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG).




The most appropriate first intervention for a patient experiencing angina pectoris is to administer nitroglycerin as prescribed. Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that helps relieve chest pain by improving blood flow to the heart muscle. While assessing vital signs and instructing the patient to rest are important, the priority is to alleviate the angina to prevent further complications. Obtaining a 12-lead ECG is also crucial for monitoring, but it should be done after addressing the immediate pain. Therefore, administering nitroglycerin effectively addresses the patient’s acute discomfort and is a critical step in managing angina.


4o mini

300

Question: A nurse is assessing a patient who reports sudden onset chest pain that occurs at rest and is not relieved by nitroglycerin. Which of the following findings would most likely indicate unstable angina?

A) Chest pain lasting less than 15 minutes
B) Pain that occurs during physical exertion only
C) Chest pain that is progressively worsening in frequency and intensity
D) Pain relieved by rest and nitroglycerin


The correct answer is the option that describes chest pain that is progressively worsening in frequency and intensity.

Rationale: Unstable angina is characterized by chest pain that occurs at rest, has a new onset, or has increased in frequency and intensity. This type of angina signals an increased risk for myocardial infarction and requires immediate medical attention. The other options describe stable angina or conditions where the pain is relieved by rest or medication, which do not align with the definition of unstable angina.


300

Which medication would most likely be given to a patient with Raynaud's phenomenon?

A. Plavix

B. Atenolol

C. Nifedipine

D. Aspirin

C. Nifedipine

Nifedipine is an CCB and dilates the vessels. It also prevents artery spasms 

300

A nurse is assessing a patient who has been diagnosed with varicose veins. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect to observe during the assessment?

A) Cool, pale skin on the lower extremities
B) Presence of purple or blue twisted veins under the skin
C) Swelling of the feet and ankles without pain
D) Ulcerations on the toes and foot

The correct answer is the presence of purple or blue twisted veins under the skin.

Rationale: Varicose veins are characterized by dilated, twisted veins that often appear blue or purple on the skin's surface. Other common symptoms may include aching, heaviness in the legs, and swelling, especially after prolonged standing. The other options—cool, pale skin, swelling without pain, and ulcerations on the toes—are not typical signs of varicose veins and may indicate other conditions that require further evaluation.

300

A nurse is caring for a patient who recently sustained a long bone fracture. Which of the following signs or symptoms should the nurse monitor for as a potential indication of fat embolism syndrome?

A) Elevated blood pressure and bradycardia

B) Sudden onset of confusion and respiratory distress

C) Abdominal pain and diarrhea

D) Severe headache and visual disturbances

Certainly! The correct answer is the sudden onset of confusion and respiratory distress.


**Rationale:**


Fat embolism syndrome (FES) can occur after a fracture, particularly of long bones, and is characterized by a classic triad of symptoms: respiratory distress, neurological changes (such as confusion or altered mental status), and petechial rash. 


Respiratory distress may manifest as shortness of breath, tachypnea, or hypoxia due to fat globules occluding pulmonary capillaries. Neurological symptoms can arise as fat globules enter the systemic circulation and affect cerebral circulation. 


The other options do not align with the typical presentations of fat embolism syndrome. Monitoring for these signs is critical in patients with recent long bone fractures to ensure early recognition and intervention.

400

What is an important med teaching on bile acid sequestrants (Cholestryamine)

Dental hygiene-- it damages teeth

Used with statins

Increases risk for bleeding 

Watch your Vitamin A, D, E, K

Can cause constipation, diarrhea, bleeding, abdominal pain

400

patient with a history of angina pectoris reports chest pain that occurs with exertion and is relieved by rest. Which type of angina is the patient most likely experiencing?
A) Stable angina
B) Unstable angina
C) Variant angina
D) Microvascular angina

Sure! The answer to Question 1 is "Stable angina."

Rationale: Stable angina is characterized by predictable chest pain that occurs with exertion or stress and is relieved by rest or nitroglycerin. This pattern is typical for patients who have a history of angina pectoris. In contrast, unstable angina occurs unexpectedly and may not be relieved by rest, while variant angina (Prinzmetal's angina) is caused by coronary artery spasms and often occurs at rest. Microvascular angina involves pain due to issues in the small coronary arteries.

400

What is the difference between an arterial embolus and arterial thrombus

Embolus- mobile and travels through the blood

Thrombus- a stationary blood clot within an artery or vein

400

Explain what ulcers would look like in PVD

develop at medial parts of the lower legs and medial ankle region; irregular and swollen edges, shallow, moderate to large drainage, granulation present (deep pink to red)

400

A nurse is educating a group of athletes about the differences between sprains and strains. Which statement made by an athlete indicates a correct understanding of these two injuries?

A) "A sprain involves injury to a muscle, while a strain affects a ligament."

B) "A strain is caused by overstretching or tearing of a ligament, while a sprain involves muscles or tendons."

C) "Both sprains and strains can occur from sudden twisting movements."

D) "Sprains typically heal faster than strains because they involve muscle tissue."

Certainly! The correct answer is that both sprains and strains can occur from sudden twisting movements.


**Rationale:**


A sprain refers to an injury to a ligament, which connects bones at a joint, while a strain refers to an injury to a muscle or tendon, which connects muscle to bone. The statement indicating that both injuries can occur from sudden twisting movements highlights an important commonality between them. 


Understanding the distinction is critical for proper diagnosis and treatment. While sprains often involve the ankle or knee and can result from activities that require sudden stops or changes in direction, strains typically affect muscles, like those in the back or hamstrings, usually due to overexertion or overstretching. The other options contain inaccuracies regarding definitions and healing times, making this statement the most accurate in demonstrating knowledge of both types of injuries.

500

What dose a cardiac angiography look for ?

plaque buildup

500

A nurse is teaching a patient about lifestyle modifications to manage angina pectoris. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I will incorporate more physical activity into my routine."
B) "I should continue smoking, as it helps me manage stress."
C) "I will follow a heart-healthy diet."
D) "I need to monitor my stress levels and find ways to relax."

The answer to Question 2 is "I should continue smoking, as it helps me manage stress."

Rationale: Continuing to smoke is detrimental to heart health and can worsen angina symptoms. Smoking increases the risk of cardiovascular disease and can lead to more severe complications. The other statements reflect positive lifestyle changes that are recommended for managing angina, such as increasing physical activity, following a heart-healthy diet, and managing stress levels.

500

Briefly Explain PAD including S/S, RF, and medications

PAD- when blood is not getting to lower extremities 

S/S: cool , hairless, dry thin legs-- gangrene-- circular punched out red wounds- pale, intermittent claudication, sharp pain at night 

RF: Smoking, HTN, Hyperlipidemia, Diabetes

Meds: Vasodilators and Antiplatelets 

500

A nurse is reviewing the risk factors for venous thromboembolism (VTE) in a patient admitted to the hospital. Which of the following factors are included in Virchow's Triad that the nurse should consider?

A) Dehydration, obesity, and prolonged immobility
B) Hypercoagulability, endothelial injury, and stasis of blood flow
C) Hypertension, diabetes, and smoking
D) Anemia, infection, and advanced age

Certainly! The correct answer focuses on the three components of Virchow's Triad, which are hypercoagulability, endothelial injury, and stasis of blood flow.

Rationale:

  1. Hypercoagulability refers to conditions that increase the tendency of blood to clot, such as certain genetic disorders, hormonal influences, or dehydration.

  2. Endothelial injury involves damage to the blood vessel lining, which can occur from trauma, surgery, or inflammation, making the vessels more prone to thrombosis.

  3. Stasis of blood flow occurs when blood circulation slows or is obstructed, often due to prolonged immobility, such as after surgery or during long flights.

Understanding these factors is crucial for identifying patients at risk for VTE and implementing appropriate preventive measures.

500

A nurse is assessing a patient who has sustained a hip fracture. Which assessment finding would most likely indicate a fractured neck of the femur?

A) The affected leg is shortened and externally rotated.

B) The patient reports severe pain in the knee joint.

C) The patient has a positive straight leg raise test.

D) There is noticeable swelling and bruising around the ankle.

Certainly! The correct answer is that the affected leg is shortened and externally rotated.


**Rationale:**


In a hip fracture, particularly a fracture of the neck of the femur, the classic presentation often includes the affected leg appearing shorter than the opposite leg and being externally rotated. This positioning is due to the pull of the hip muscles and gravity acting on the fracture.


The other options are less indicative of a hip fracture. Severe knee pain may occur but is not a primary indicator of a hip fracture. A positive straight leg raise test is more relevant to hip joint function than a specific fracture diagnosis. Swelling and bruising around the ankle could occur from various injuries but are not typical signs associated directly with hip fractures. Recognizing these key assessment findings is crucial for appropriate diagnosis and management.