Physiology and Clinical Manifestations
Medications and Treatments in High-Risk Pregnancies
Plan of Care and Client Teaching
High-Risk Pregnancies/ Preclampsia
Physiology and Clinical manifestations Pt.2
100

 Which of the following is the most common cause of first trimester spontaneous abortion?

  • A) Maternal disease
  • B) Drug use
  • C) Fetal genetic abnormalities
  • D) Cervical insufficiency

C) Fetal genetic abnormalities

100

Which medication is administered to Rh-negative women after a spontaneous abortion?

  • A) Oxytocin
  • B) RhoGAM
  • C) Misoprostol
  • D) Magnesium sulfate

B) RhoGAM

100

In developing a plan of care for a client with a high-risk pregnancy, which is a primary goal?

  • A) Preventing infection
  • B) Ensuring adequate nutrition
  • C) Reducing maternal anxiety
  • D) Maintaining uterine stability


D) Maintaining uterine stability

100

Which medication is crucial in the management of severe preeclampsia to prevent seizures?

  • A) Calcium gluconate
  • B) Magnesium sulfate
  • C) Terbutaline
  • D) Betamethasone

B) Magnesium sulfate

100

Which clinical manifestation is associated with placental abruption?

  • A) Painless vaginal bleeding
  • B) Dull abdominal pain and/or low back pain
  • C) Soft, relaxed uterus
  • D) Increased fetal movement


B) Dull abdominal pain and/or low back pain

200

What is the primary nursing assessment for a woman experiencing a spontaneous abortion?

  • A) Measuring blood pressure
  • B) Monitoring fetal heart rate
  • C) Assessing the color and amount of vaginal bleeding
  • D) Performing an ultrasound
  1. C) Assessing the color and amount of vaginal bleeding


200

How frequently should pad counts be monitored in a patient experiencing vaginal bleeding during pregnancy?

  • A) Every 4 hours
  • B) Every 6 hours
  • C) Every 8 hours
  • D) Every 12 hours

A) Every 4 hours

200

 When should RhoGAM be administered to an Rh-negative woman after a spontaneous abortion?

  • A) Within 24 hours
  • B) Within 48 hours
  • C) Within 72 hours
  • D) Within 96 hours

C) Within 72 hours

200

Which medication should be administered if signs of magnesium toxicity occur?

  • A) Calcium gluconate
  • B) Potassium chloride
  • C) Sodium bicarbonate
  • D) Hydralazine


A) Calcium gluconate

200

What are signs of hypovolemic shock in a mother with placental abruption?

  • A) Bradycardia, bradypnea, increased urine output
  • B) Tachycardia, tachypnea, decreased urine output
  • C) Hypertension, hyperthermia, increased urine output
  • D) Hypotension, hypothermia, decreased urine output

B) Tachycardia, tachypnea, decreased urine output

300

What physical finding is associated with placenta previa during a physical exam?

  • A) Firm, contracted uterus
  • B) Soft, relaxed, and non-tender uterus
  • C) Cervical effacement
  • D) Abdominal bruising

B) Soft, relaxed, and non-tender uterus

300

What is the purpose of hCG monitoring in a first trimester abortion without D&C?

  • A) To confirm pregnancy
  • B) To ensure conceptus tissues have been expelled
  • C) To assess fetal heart rate
  • D) To monitor maternal blood pressure

B) To ensure conceptus tissues have been expelled

300

What is the ultimate treatment for preeclampsia?

  • A) Administration of magnesium sulfate
  • B) Bedrest and hydration
  • C) Delivery of the placenta
  • D) Antihypertensive medications

C) Delivery of the placenta

300

What is the loading dose of magnesium sulfate for preventing seizure activity in severe preeclampsia?

  • A) 1-2 grams over 15-20 minutes
  • B) 2-4 grams over 10-15 minutes
  • C) 4-6 grams over 15-20 minutes
  • D) 6-8 grams over 10-15 minutes

C) 4-6 grams over 15-20 minutes

300

What is a significant clinical sign of a concealed hemorrhage in placental abruption?

  • A) Hard, board-like abdomen
  • B) Decreased fetal movement
  • C) Soft, relaxed uterus
  • D) Increased uterine contraction

A) Hard, board-like abdomen

400

What should a nurse avoid when managing a client with placenta previa?

  • A) Administering IV fluids
  • B) Performing a sterile vaginal exam
  • C) Monitoring fetal heart rate
  • D) Assessing maternal vital signs

B) Performing a sterile vaginal exam

400

Which instruction is essential for a client with cervical insufficiency upon discharge?

  • A) Refrain from sexual intercourse
  • B) Increase fluid intake to 3 liters per day
  • C) Engage in regular strenuous exercise
  • D) Monitor blood glucose levels

A) Refrain from sexual intercourse

400

Which sign should prompt a client with cervical insufficiency to contact their healthcare provider immediately?

  • A) Mild pelvic discomfort
  • B) Increased fetal movement
  • C) Purulent vaginal discharge
  • D) Mild back pain


C) Purulent vaginal discharge

400

What is a crucial component of home care for a patient with mild preeclampsia?

  • A) Strict bedrest without monitoring
  • B) Blood pressure monitoring every 4-6 hours while awake
  • C) Increased physical activity
  • D) Daily intake of high-protein diet

B) Blood pressure monitoring every 4-6 hours while awake

400

Which therapeutic range of serum magnesium level is considered safe during magnesium sulfate therapy?

  • A) 2-4 mg/dL
  • B) 4-7 mg/dL
  • C) 8-10 mg/dL
  • D) 10-12 mg/dL

B) 4-7 mg/dL

500

What is the primary symptom of placenta previa?

  • A) Severe abdominal cramps
  • B) Painful vaginal bleeding
  • C) Painless vaginal bleeding
  • D) Elevated blood pressure

C) Painless vaginal bleeding

500

What is a key component of home care for a client with placenta previa who is less than 36 weeks gestation with no active bleeding?

  • A) Performing daily kick counts
  • B) Engaging in moderate exercise
  • C) Monitoring blood pressure twice daily
  • D) Regular vaginal examinations

A) Performing daily kick counts

500

Which symptom should prompt immediate medical attention in a patient receiving magnesium sulfate for severe preeclampsia?

  • A) Diaphoresis
  • B) Elevated blood pressure
  • C) Absence of deep tendon reflexes
  • D) Increased urinary output

C) Absence of deep tendon reflexes

500

DOUBLE THE POINTS

At what gestational age is Rho(D) Immunoglobulin (RhoGAM) typically administered to Rh-negative mothers?

  • A) 18-22 weeks
  • B) 24-28 weeks
  • C) 28-32 weeks
  • D) 34-38 weeks

Which condition may arise in a newborn due to Rh incompatibility?

  • A) Hypoglycemia
  • B) Anemia
  • C) Hypertension
  • D) Hypercalcemia


C) 28-32 weeks


B) Anemia

500

DOUBLE THE POINTS

What causes Rh incompatibility during pregnancy?

  • A) Mother is Rh-positive and fetus is Rh-negative
  • B) Mother is Rh-negative and fetus is Rh-positive
  • C) Both mother and fetus are Rh-positive
  • D) Both mother and fetus are Rh-negative

Which pregnancy is typically not affected by Rh incompatibility?

  • A) First pregnancy
  • B) Second pregnancy
  • C) Third pregnancy
  • D) All pregnancies are equally affected

B) Mother is Rh-negative and fetus is Rh-positive 


A) First pregnancy