Pregnancy Changes
High Risk Preg
Labor & Birth
High Risk Pt 2
Random
100

Which of the following vitamins prevents chances of neural tube defects?

Vitamin D

Calcium

Folic Acid

Zinc

Folic Acid


100

True or False

As soon as Placenta Previa is diagnosed, most pregnancies will be terminated via C-section if the fetus is mature.

True

Why?

100

Which assessment would indicate that a woman is in true labor?

Membranes are ruptured and fluid is clear.

Presenting part is engaged and not floating.

Cervix is 4 cm dilated, 90% effaced.

Contractions are occurring randomly.

Cervix is 4 cm dilated, 90% effaced.

100

Which of the following is given for the prevention of eclampsia?

Calcium gluconate

Terbutaline

Magnesium Sulfate

Oxytocin 

Magnesium Sulfate

100

A woman's first day of her LMC is February 7th, 2022

When is the due date? 



Nov 14, 2023 

minus 3 months, plus 1 week, plus 1 year

200

A group of students are reviewing the signs of pregnancy. The students demonstrate understanding of the information when they identify which as presumptive signs? (Select all that apply.)

A) Amenorrhea

B) Nausea

C) Abdominal enlargement

D) Braxton-Hicks contractions

E) Fetal heart sounds

A, B

200
  1. Which woman should receive RhoGAM postpartum?

A. Nonsensitized Rh-negative mother with an Rh-negative newborn

B. Nonsensitized Rh-negative mother with an Rh-positive newborn

C. Sensitized Rh-negative mother with an Rh-positive newborn

D. Sensitized Rh-negative mother with an Rh-negative newborn

B

How come?

200
  1. By the end of the second stage of labor, the nurse would expect which of the following events?

The cervix is fully dilated and effaced.

The placenta is detached and expelled.

The fetus is born and on mother’s chest.

The woman may request pain medication.

The fetus is born and on mother’s chest.

200
  1. Women with multiple gestations are at high risk for: SATA

A. Preterm labor

B. Preeclampsia

C. Gestational Diabetes

D. Hyperemesis gravidarum

A, B, D

200

38 years old patient is currently pregnant with twins. She has 7 years old triplets who were born at 30 weeks gestation, and 10 years old child born at 39 weeks gestation. The patient had a miscarriage at 9 weeks gestation 10 years ago. What is her GTPAL?

G5,T1,P1,A0,L4

G4,T1,P1,A1,L4

G4, T1, P1, A0, L5

G4, T1, P1, A1, L5

G4,T1,P1,A1,L4 

300

Which fish should be limited in a pregnant woman’s diet because of its high mercury content?

Salmon

Cod

Shrimp

Swordfish

Swordfish

300

A woman is suspected of having placental abruption. Which finding would the nurse expect to assess as a classic symptom?

A. Painless, bright red bleeding

B. “Knife-like” abdominal pain

C. Excessive nausea and vomiting

D. Hypertension and headache

B

300

In stage 3 of labor, which observation would suggest that placental separation is occurring?

Uterus stops contracting altogether.

Umbilical cord pulsations stop.

Uterine shape changes to globular.

Maternal blood pressure drops.

Uterine shape changes to globular.

300

If you were told to start the IV on the woman admitted for Placenta Previa, what gauge needle would you use?

A. 18 G

B. 20G

C. 22G

D. 24G

A 18 Gauge or larger

Why?

300
  1. Which live vaccine can pregnant women not receive?

MMR

Hep B

Varicella

Flu

MMR

Why?

400

During a client's physical examination, the nurse notes that the lower uterine segment is soft on palpation. The nurse would document this finding as the:

A. Hegar sign.
B. McDonald sign.
C. Chadwick sign.
D. Goodell sign.

A. Hegar sign.

At approximately 6 weeks of gestation, softening and compressibility of the lower uterine segment occur; this is called the Hegar sign. The McDonald sign indicates a fast-food restaurant. The Chadwick sign is a blue-violet cervix caused by increased vascularity; this occurs around the fourth week of gestation. Softening of the cervical tip is called the Goodell sign, which may be observed around the sixth week of pregnancy.

400

The clinic nurse is performing a prenatal assessment on a pregnant client at risk for preeclampsia. Which clinical sign is not included as a symptom of preeclampsia?

Edema

Proteinuria

Glucosuria

Hypertension

Glucosuria

This is a sign of what condition?

400

Which interventions do you perform after PROM, when the water breaks? SATA

A. Assess FHR

B. Check mom's BP

C. Nitrazine paper test

D. Tell mom to push

A, C

Check for cord compression, if present what do you do?

400

Most common clinical signs and symptoms of oligohydramnios: SATA

A. Leaking amniotic fluid

B. Macrosomia

C. Small for Gestational Age(SGA)

D. Decreased fetal movement

A, C, D

What is macrosomia a sign of?

400

Pregnant mom is 30 weeks pregnant. She has a 3 year old born at 35 weeks gestation. She also had a miscarriage at 21 weeks gestation. 

G3, T0, P1, A1, L1

G2, T1, P1, A0, L1

G3, T0, P1, A0, L1

G3, T0, P2, A0, L1

G3, T0, P2, A0, L1

500

A woman comes to the prenatal clinic suspecting that she is pregnant, and assessment reveals probable signs of pregnancy. Which of the following would be included as part of this assessment? (Select all that apply.)

A) Positive pregnancy test

B) Ultrasound visualization of the fetus

C) Auscultation of a fetal heart beat

D) Ballottement

E) Absence of menstruation

F) Softening of the cervix

A, D, F

500

A patient completes a one hour glucose tolerance test. The patient's result is 190 mg/dL. As the nurse you know that the next step in the patient's care is to?

A. Continue monitoring pregnancy, the test is normal

B. Reassess blood glucose in 2 weeks

C. Notify the physician who will order the patient to take a 3 hour glucose tolerance test

D. Provide education to the patient about how to manage gestational diabetes during pregnancy

C 3 HOUR TEST

A test result >140 mg/dL for 1 hour glucose tolerance test requires that the patient take a 3 hour glucose tolerance test. This test will be used to diagnose if the patient has gestational diabetes.



500

The nurse is supervising care in the emergency department. Which situation requires immediate intervention?

A. Bright red bleeding with clots at 32 weeks' gestation; pulse = 110, blood pressure 90/50, respirations = 20.

B. Dark red bleeding at 30 weeks' gestation with normal vital signs; client reports the presence of fetal movement.

C. Spotting of pinkish brown discharge at 6 weeks' gestation and abdominal cramping; ultrasound scheduled in 1 hour.

D. Moderate vaginal bleeding at 36 weeks' gestation; client has an IV of lactated Ringer solution running at 125 mL/hour.

A

Bleeding in the third trimester is usually associated with placenta previa or placental abruption. Blood loss can be heavy and rapid. This client has a low blood pressure with an increased pulse rate, which indicates hypovolemic shock, which can be fatal to the mother and therefore the baby. Both lives are at risk in this situation. Since there is no information given that the client has an IV started, this client is the least stable, and therefore the highest priority.

500

What is the difference between gestational hypertension & preeclampsia?

Protienuria with preeclampsia


What about preeclampsia vs eclampsia?

500
  1. What are the signs/symptoms of magnesium toxicity? SATA 

A. Urinary output <30mL/hr 

B. Absent DTR

C. Proteinuria

D. Decreased LOC

E. Irritability

F. Decreased RR

A, B, D, F

LOW & SLOW

Follow up: what do we give for this?