True or False
Multiple Choice
Multiple Choice
Select all that Apply
Random
100

True or False: Bleeding is the most significant complication of orthopedic surgery

False: it is technically infection 

Dr. Farina mentions it in her lecture 

100

Which of the following statements about intraoperative evoked potential monitoring during spine surgery is CORRECT?

  • A) Motor evoked potentials (MEPs) are unaffected by neuromuscular blocking agents (NDMRs).
  • B) Somatosensory evoked potentials (SSEPs) can be used to monitor the motor cortex and descending tracts.
  • C) Inhaled agents at high MAC values (>0.5) enhance the signal amplitude of SSEPs.
  • D) Hypothermia and hypotension can increase the latency of SSEPs during surgery.

D) Hypothermia and hypotension can increase the latency of SSEPs during surgery.

100

Your patient is coming in to fix an emergency pelvic fracture. You are getting them ready to induce. While putting on leads you notice they are covered in petichiae. You look up at your monitor and they are only sating 89% on room air. What do you MOST LIKELY suspect is occurring?

A. DIC

B. Allergic reaction 

C. fat emboli

D. Sepsis

C. Fat emboli 

100

Which of the following are aims of the Surgical Care Improvement Project (SCIP)?

A. Cephazolin initiated within 1 hour of incision 

B. Clindamycin and Vanco for B-lactam allergies can be used instead and should also be initiated within 1 hour of incision 

C. maintain BG 140-180

D. maintain normothermia 

A, C, D

B. is true except it can be initiated within 2 hours of incision not 1

100

Here is a link where you match the type of anticogulant to the standrds for Neuraxial/regional anesthesia (I feel like this will be important but I put it in this format because its easier to see)


200

A FRAIL score of 3-5 means the patient is experiencing Frailty. 

(Bonus is you can list what each letter stands for)

True: 3-5 = frailty 

          1-2 = pre frail 

           0= robust health 

(F= fatigue, R=resistance, A= ambulation, I- illness, L= loss of weight)

200

How long after initiation of the tourniquet does pain start?

A. 30 mins

B. 90 mins

C. 60 mins

D. 2 hours 


C. 60 mins 

you may see an increase in BP which becomes very hard to control 

200

Which of the following are NOT risks of deflation of a tourniquet?

A. hypotension 

B. increased K+ and myoglobin (metabolic waste)

C. transient hypercarbia and acidosis 

D. transient hyperthermia and desaturation 

D. its is HYPOTHERMIA and desat 

   

200

 Common patient traits seen in orthopedic trauma cases include: (Select all that apply)

  • A) Obesity
  • B) Rheumatoid arthritis
  • C) History of falls
  • D) Pediatric patients with deformities
  • E) Chronic kidney disease

A) Obesity, B) Rheumatoid arthritis, C) History of falls, D) Pediatric patients with deformities

200

How many days of consecutive use of unfractionated heparin should you check coags

A. 4 days

B. 10 days

C. 1 day

D. 6 days

A. 4 days


300

Ture or false: Streptococous aureus is the cause of most surgical site infections 

False: it is Staph aureus 

This is why MRSA decolonization with preadmission nasal swabs/spray (Mupirocinm Povidine-iodine 5%) is importnat since 80% of SSI come from patients own noses 

300

Which of the following is not true regarding Knee Arthroscopy 

A. usually done with general and a LMA

B. does not use a tourniquet

C. usually 60 minutes 

D. local anesthesia can be injected into the joint for anesthesia 

B. does not use a tourniquet

it does use a tourniquet 

300

In managing anesthesia for prone-positioned spine surgery, what is the primary concern related to head positioning?

  • A) Risk of facial nerve compression
  • B) Compromised cerebral venous drainage
  • C) Pulmonary aspiration risk
  • D) Increased likelihood of intracranial hypertension

B) Compromised cerebral venous drainage

300

Which considerations are essential in preoperative assessment for elderly orthopedic patients? (Select all that apply)

  • A) Cardiopulmonary function
  • B) Hearing impairment
  • C) Skin fragility
  • D) Assessment of cognitive status
  • E) Nutritional status evaluation

A) Cardiopulmonary function, C) Skin fragility, D) Assessment of cognitive status, E) Nutritional status evaluation

300

This medication is a synthetic analogue of the amino acid lysine and competes for lysine receptors that activate plasminogen

Tranexamic acid 

400

True or false: The silicone ring tourniquet has a timer on it that automatically deflates the periodically


False: this is the pneumatic tourniquet. You have to keep track of the time yourself 

400

Which of the following is a major risk factor for postoperative visual loss (POVL) during spine surgery?

  • A) Hypertension
  • B) Use of the Wilson frame
  • C) Female gender
  • D) Age >60 

B. use of the wilson frame 

400

During total shoulder arthroplasty in the beach chair position, what is the greatest risk associated with the surgical position?

  • A) Brachial plexus injury due to traction
  • B) Ulnar nerve compression from non-operative arm positioning
  • C) Decreased cerebral perfusion from hypotension
  • D) Facial nerve palsy from improper head positioning
  • C) Decreased cerebral perfusion from hypotension
400

Which of the following are major considerations for anesthesia management during spine surgery in the prone position? (Select all that apply)

  • A) Increased intra-abdominal pressure
  • B) Decreased stroke volume
  • C) Decreased peak pressures
  • D) Monitoring for facial edema
  • E) Frequent checks of the patient's head positioning

A) Increased intra-abdominal pressure, B) Decreased stroke volume, D) Monitoring for facial edema, E) Frequent checks of the patient's head positioning

Potential barotrauma, bucking

Consider pressure control vs volume control, SIMV

400

This is a list of contraindications for TXA. State whether they are relative or absolute contraindications? 

A. history of DVT/PE

B. Factor V leiden 

C. coronary stents

D. SAH

E. active thrombosis 

F. hypersensitivity

A. history of DVT/PE --> relative 

B. Factor V leiden --> relative

C. coronary stents --> relative

D. SAH --> absolute

E. active thrombosis --> absolute 

F. hypersensitivity --> absolute

500

True or False: Extracapsular hip fracture is associated with less blood loss than in comparison to intracapsular

False: intracapsular is associated with less blood loss

500

Which consideration is crucial for patients undergoing surgery for acute compartment syndrome?

  • A) Avoiding neuraxial anesthesia
  • B) Monitoring five classic signs, including hypotension and tachycardia
  • C) Limiting the use of tourniquets to less than one hour
  • D) Prioritizing fasciotomy as the definitive treatment

D) Prioritizing fasciotomy as the definitive treatment

500

 In the management of acetabular fractures, which of the following factors contributes most to intraoperative hemodynamic instability?

  • A) Prolonged anesthesia induction
  • B) Prone patient positioning
  • C) High volume blood loss
  • D) Pneumatic tourniquet use
  • C) High volume blood loss
500

Which of the following are important considerations for the use of evoked potential monitoring during orthopedic spine surgery? (Select all that apply)

  • A) Low MAC inhaled agents are preferred to maintain SSEP signal amplitude.
  • B) Motor evoked potentials (MEPs) are highly sensitive to inhaled anesthetics and neuromuscular blockade.
  • C) Electromyography (EMG) can monitor sensory cortex and ascending tracts.
  • D) A bite block is necessary during MEP monitoring to prevent tongue injuries.
  • E) Hypotension has no significant effect on evoked potential signals.

A) Low MAC inhaled agents are preferred to maintain SSEP signal amplitude, B) Motor evoked potentials (MEPs) are highly sensitive to inhaled anesthetics and neuromuscular blockade, D) A bite block is necessary during MEP monitoring to prevent tongue injuries

500

Which of the following statements about kyphoplasty is CORRECT?

  • A) It is performed primarily under spinal anesthesia with prone positioning.
  • B) It involves the injection of methyl methacrylate into the intervertebral disc.
  • C) It is indicated primarily for treatment of vertebral compression fractures.
  • D) It should always be performed in a radiology suite due to imaging requirements.

C) It is indicated primarily for treatment of vertebral compression fractures.