trauma!
cardiology
pharmacology
respiratory
ems operations
100

What are signs of a basilar skull fracture?

Battle’s sign, raccoon eyes, CSF leakage from the nose or ears.

100

What is the normal intrinsic rate of the sinoatrial (SA) node?

60–100 beats per minute.

100

What are the six rights of medication administration?

Right patient, right medication, right dose, right route, right time, right documentation.

100

What is the normal range for an adult respiratory rate?

12 - 20 breaths per minute

100

What is the first step in ensuring safety in an EMS scene?

Scene size-up and ensuring the scene is safe for responders.

200

What is the most important initial step in managing a trauma patient with severe external bleeding?

Apply direct pressure to the wound to control hemorrhage.

200

What is the first-line treatment for ventricular fibrillation (VF) or pulseless ventricular tachycardia (VT)?

Immediate defibrillation followed by high-quality CPR.

200

What is the reversal agent for opioid overdose, and how does it work?

Naloxone (Narcan); it competitively binds to opioid receptors, blocking opioid effects.

200

What are the hallmark signs of an asthma attack?

Wheezing, prolonged expiratory phase, and dyspnea.

200

What is the primary goal of triage during a mass casualty incident?

To prioritize patients based on the severity of injury and likelihood of survival

300

What is the primary indication for performing needle decompression?

Signs of tension pneumothorax — respiratory distress, hypotension, distended neck veins, and absent breath sounds on one side.

300

What ECG change is most characteristic of a STEMI?

ST-segment elevation in two or more contiguous leads.

300

What is the adult dose of epinephrine for anaphylaxis?

0.3–0.5 mg IM of 1:1,000 concentration.

300

What is the difference between oxygenation and ventilation?

Oxygenation is adding oxygen to the blood; ventilation is the exchange of air between the lungs and environment (removing CO₂).

300

What should you do if a patient resists or denies treatment and transport?

Explain the risks, confirm they have decision-making capacity, and obtain a signed refusal form.

400

What is the best method to immobilize a suspected pelvic fracture in the field?

Apply a pelvic binder or secure the pelvis with a sheet to reduce movement and bleeding.

400

What are the “H’s and T’s” in cardiac arrest used to identify?

Reversible causes of cardiac arrest (e.g., hypoxia, hypovolemia, tension pneumothorax, tamponade, toxins, thrombosis).

400

What class of drug is nitroglycerin, and what is its main effect?

Vasodilator; it decreases myocardial oxygen demand by reducing preload and afterload.

400

What oxygen delivery device provides the highest oxygen concentration?

Bag-valve mask (BVM) with reservoir at 15 L/min (up to 100% O₂).

400

What does the acronym MIST stand for during a patient handoff? 

M - Mechanism of injury and illness

I - Injuries

S - Signs and Symptoms

T - Treatment given

500

What is the correct anatomical site for needle decompression?

The 2nd intercostal space, midclavicular line (or alternatively, the 4th or 5th intercostal space, anterior axillary line).

500

What drug is indicated for symptomatic bradycardia, and what is the dose?

Atropine 1 mg IV push every 3–5 minutes, up to 3 mg total.

500

What is the mechanism of action of epinephrine?

It stimulates alpha and beta-adrenergic receptors, causing vasoconstriction, increased heart rate, and bronchodilation.


500

What condition is characterized by fluid accumulation in the alveoli due to heart failure?

pulmonary edema

500

What is the difference between online and offline medical direction?

Online direction is real-time communication with a physician; offline direction follows standing written protocols.