The most common source of sepsis originates from this
What is bacterial
100
Name the two criteria for sepsis
What is Infection (inflammatory response to microorganisms, invasion of normally sterile tissues) and SIRS (two or more of the following: core temperature greater than 38 C/100.4 F or less than 36 C/96.8 F, elevated heart rate greater than 90 beats/min, respiratory rate greater than 20 breaths per min or PaC02 less than 32 mmHg or mechanical ventilation for acute resp process, ot WBC count greater than 12,000 or less than 4,000 or greater than 10% immature neutrophils
100
Name the 4 routes of entry of a substance which when introduced into an organism acts chemicaly on the tissue to produce serious injury or death
What is ingestion, inhalation, injection, and surface absorption
100
The sound a patient makes with a partial airway obstruction at or above the larynx
What is high pitched crowing, or harsh whistle with inspiration (stridor)
100
Name the four ways a patient can be burned
What is thermal, chemical, electrical, or inhalation
200
The T-cell promotes the formation of IL-2. The release of IL-2 promotes these two effects
What is systemic vascular resistance decreases and cardiac output increases
200
Describe 3 clinical manifestations of sepsis
What is temperature elevation/fever, tachycardia, generalized crackles in lung fields, and change in level of consciousness
200
The number one top agent associated with the highest mortality rate
What is antidepressants
200
Noninfectious laryngeal edema may be the result of this
What is trauma, inhalation of noxious gases, burns, or anaphylactic shock, or the removal of an ET tube.
200
Name the two ways burns are classified
What is the extent of total body surface area (TBSA) and teh depth of skin damage
300
According to the figure on pg 537, there are 4 basic responses which all cause endothelial damage. What are the 4 basic responses which are common in the septic response
What is neutrophil activiation, platelet activation, metabolism of arachidonic acid, and T-cell release of IL-2
300
The treatment of sepsis centers around goal-directed therapy. Name 3 ways to treat sepsis
What is fluids, inotropes, vasopressors, and blood transfusion. As well as Activated protein C, steroids, and glycemic control
300
In a patient with a suspected toxic emergency, assessing renal function is imperative. What aspects of the renal system specifically needs to be assessed?
What is urine output, the presence of myoglobinuria or hematuria, and the BUN and Creatinine to assess for renal failure
300
The treatment of severe upper airway obstruction
What is a mixture of helium and oxygen
300
Name the layers of the skin destroyed in a third degree burn
What is epidermis and dermal layers of the skin
400
Because tumor necrosis factor (TNF) produces a substance such as endotoxin, this response is often seen in a patient with early sepsis
What is a fever
400
The best treatment for multiorgan dysfunction syndrome is
What is treat each organ. Treatment of MODS is supportive of the organs failing in conjunction with use of any other therapies. Communication with family is criticalas survival is poor with this syndrome
400
Name 3 ways to remove toxic agents
What is gastric lavage, cathartics (sorbitol), activated charcoal, decontamination of skin and eyes, enhanced elimination thru forced diuresis, ion-trapping methods, multidose charcoal, hemodialysis.
400
What is the treatment for the victim of a near drowning
What is endotracheal intubation with the administration of 100% 02 at 5-10 cm of PEEP
400
Fluid remobilization or diuresis usually occurs when
What is beginning 48 to 72 hours post burn and lasts 1-3 days.
500
Name the several functions of Protein C when activated
What is inhibits clot formation, allows natural fibrinolysis to occur, and interferes with endothelial cell changes, neutrophil attraction, and apoptosis (programmed cell death).
500
The only side effect of activated protein C
What is bleeding
500
The national number for Poison Control Centers
What is 1-800-222-1222
500
If a victim dies during the laryngospasm phase, it is known as what
What is a dry drowning
500
Besides hypovolemia, the major threat to the burn patient is