Introduction to Pharmacology
The Nervous System
The Cardiovascular System
The Immune System (including anti-infectives)
The Respiratory System
The Digestive System
The Musculoskeletal System
Endocrine, Reproductive & Urinary Systems
Skin, Eye and Ear Systems
100

Which drug was discovered by Sir Alexander Flemming in 1928 and widely considered the first antibiotic: 

a. Cephalexin

b. Penicillin

c. Erythromycin

d. Tetracycline

b. Penicillin

100
Which part of the ANS causes the bladder to contract?
What is the parasympathetic system
100

True or False - warfarin will dissolve a clot

False

100

what does it mean if an antibiotic has a broad spectrum of activity 

It will target a larger number of types of bacteria
100
What does LAMA stand for

Long Acting Muscarinic Antagonist

100

Which type of iron usually causes the least amount of stomach upset?

a. ferrous fumerate

b. polysaccharide iron complex

c. ferrous sulfate

d. ferrous gluconate

b. polysaccharide iron complex

100

What condition is treated with bisphosphonates?

osteoporosis

100

what is the difference between Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes mellitus

type 1 - pancreas is not producing insulin

type 2 - insulin is being produced but may not be working or receptors are resistant to it

100

what is one of the most common OTC medications used to treat acne?

a. tretinoin

b. benzoyl peroxide

c. tetracycline

d. betamethasone

b. benzoyl peroxide

200

Psychological dependence causes which of the following symptoms after the agent is stopped? 

a. tremors

b. insomnia

c. abdominal cramps

d. intense craving

d. intense craving

200
Which category of antidepressants is associated with tyramine containing food interactions?


What is MAOI

200
What is the most common annoying side effect of an ACE inhibitor? 

cough 

200

List three anti-infective categories (other than antibacterial)

 

Any 3 of:

  • Anthelmintic
  • Antifungal
  • Antimalarial
  • Antiretroviral
  • Antiviral
  • Antiprotozoal
200

Give 1 example of a LABA

formoterol, salmeterol, or indacaterol

200

Which category of acid reducers are the most potent?

a. PPIs

b. H2 blockers

c. antacids

d. foaming agents 

a. PPIs

200

A traditional drug that is commonly used to prevent hyperuricemia and the development of gout is called?

allopurinol (newer one is febuxosat and also colchicine is sometimes used preventatively) 

200

This antithyroid medication is commonly prescribed to treat hyperthyroidism and Graves’ disease by decreasing thyroid hormone production.

What is propylthiouracil (PTU)?

200

This parasitic skin infestation is caused by mites burrowing into the skin and is commonly treated with permethrin cream.

What is scabies?

300

Give 3 visible signs that might make you think the patient at your counter has a drug dependance

Any 3 of:

  • Pupils pinpoint or extremely dilated
  • Droopy eyelids
  • Constant runny nose & rubbing of nose
  • Complexions either pale or flushed
  • Excessive itching and scratching
  • Sweating
  • Tremors
  • Rigid movements and muscle cramps
  • Fearful and agitated, emotionally volatile
  • Lethargic and disinterested
  • Giddy and overly friendly
  • Evasive answers
300

Patients with asthma should generally not take which of the following?

a. alpha blockers

b. alpha agonists

c. beta blockers

d. beta agonists

c. beta blockers

300

CCBs block calcium ions channels in arterial smooth muscle which will cause what?

vasodilation 

300

When a patient is in shock does their heart rate go up or down? 

Up - tachycardia

300

Which type of inhaler can we use an Aerochamber with?

MDI

300

What natural product is used to treat nausea? 

Ginger 

300

This centrally acting muscle relaxant is commonly used to reduce muscle spasms in patients with multiple sclerosis, cerebral palsy, or spinal cord injury.

baclofen 

300

This oral antidiabetic drug is the only medication in the biguanide class and is commonly prescribed as first line for type 2 diabetes mellitus.

what is metformin?
300

This eye disorder develops when aqueous humour drainage is impaired, increasing intraocular pressure and potentially causing blindness.

What is glaucoma?

400

Medications primarily use 2 processes to cross body membranes - what are they?

Diffusion and Active Transport (page 47 of text book)

400

What does GAD stand for?

Generalized anxiety disorder

400

You should not eat or drink caffiene for at least how long prior to checking your blood pressure?

30 minutes

400

The type of vaccine that contains partial organisms or bacterial proteins that are generated in a lab using biotechnology is know as:

a. attenuated 

b. inactivated

c. toxoid

d recombinant

d. recombinant

400

Pseudoephedrine is a decongestant that acts through what mechanism? 

Alpha adreneric agonist (sympathomimetic)

400

Pernicious anemia is treated with B12 - what is the proper name for B12?

cyanocobalamin

400

This selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) is used to treat osteoporosis in postmenopausal women.

What is raloxifene?

400

This thiazide diuretic is one of the most widely prescribed medications for hypertension and fluid retention.

What is hydrochlorothiazide?

400

These vitamin A–like compounds are used to treat acne but are not recommended during pregnancy.

What are retinoids?

500

Drugs that speed up an isoenzyme within the cytochrome P450 system are called what?

What is - inducers 

(the ones that slow down the isoenzyme are inhibitors and the drugs that use an isoenzyme within the system are called substrates)

500

Benzodiazepines act by binding to what receptor-chloride channel molecule?

GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid)

500

If angiotensin 1 increases what happens to your blood pressure? 

it goes up

500

How often should adults recieve a tetanus vaccine? 

every 10 years

500
What is the concern with using topical decongestants for more than 3-5 days if any?

Rebound congestion

500
What particular type of emesis is doxylamine with pyridoxine (DiclectinR) used to treat? 
Morning sickness/ pregnancy related nausea and vomiting
500

This type of medication inhibits the production and release of prostaglandins that are required in the cyclooxygenase pathway.

What is NSAID
500

This electrolyte imbalance may occur when patients take loop or thiazide diuretics

What is hypokalemia?

500

These drugs are used during eye examinations to dilate the pupils and allow examination of the retina.

What are mydriatic drugs?

600

Drugs that inhibit or block responses are known as what?

What is antagonists 

(Agonists cause a response)

600

Tech tip - what auxiliary label should always be put on prescriptions for benzodiazepines and barbiturates?

May cause drowsiness use caution when driving or operating dangerous equipment, alcohol may intensify this affect/ Do not drink alcohol wile taking this medication 

600

What are the 3 main factors responsible for blood pressure (not things that influence it we are looking for the 3 primary factors involved in the calculation of it) 

cardiac output, peripheral resistance, blood volume

600

The following medical conditions although very different may all be treated with one particular category of medications: Psoriasis, Rheumatoid Arthritis, SLE (lupus), Myastenia Gravis 

What is that category?

Immunosupressants
600

Which of the following is the correct order of administration of inhalers

a. Salbutamol then ipratropium

b. Ipratropium then terbutaline

c. Fluticasone then salbutamol

d. They all do the same thing so it doesn't matter for these examples

a. Salbutamol then ipratropium 

600

Name one osmotic/saline laxative that is available as a powder to be mixed in any liquid and taken orally

polyethylene glycol 3350/PEG  

600

These two hormones help regulate calcium levels in the bloodstream by affecting bone resorption and deposition.

What are parathyroid hormone (PTH) and calcitonin?

600

These uterine relaxants are prescribed to inhibit contractions during premature labour. (category not a specific drug)

What are tocolytics?

600

This ophthalmic antibiotic may be prescribed for ear or eye infections and belongs to the fluoroquinolone class.

What is ciprofloxacin?