Show:
Autoknowit:
PNS
Autoknowit:
SNS
Dem Water Pills
Funky Rhythms
Bust That Clot
100
Nicotinic ACh receptors are ___________ (1) and muscarinic ACh receptors are __________(2)
What is 1. Ligand gated ion channels 2. GTP-binding proteins
100
Beta 1 and Beta 2 receptors cause a ______ (1) in cAMP, while alpha 2 cause a _________ (2) in cAMP.
What is (1) increase and (2) decrease
100
What side effects would you see with thiazide diuretics? A. Hypokalemia B. Hypomagnesia C. Hyperglycemia D. Hypercalcemia E. All of the above
What is E!!!! Thiazide decrease loss of Ca and can be used for patients with osteoporosis who have hypercalciuria.
100
What EKG change would you see with Type II antiarrhythmics?
Increased PR interval.
100
What do you need to monitor in a patient on heparin?
What is aPTT
200
What are the side-effects of choline esters (1)? What are the contraindications for them (2)?
1. What are DUMBBELLS!!!! D = Diarrhea , Decreased Blood Pressure U = Urination M = Miosis B = Bradycardia, Bronchoconstriction E = Excitation of skeletal muscles L = Lacrimation S = Sweating, Salivation 2. What are asthma, urinary obstruction, and acid-peptic disease
200
What drug is used to reverse bradycardia associated with beta blocker use?
What is glucagon
200
What class of diuretics cause dose-dependent ototoxicity?
What is loop diuretics (furosemide, torsemide, bumetanide, ethacrynic acid).
200
This class of antiarrhythmics works particularly well for ventricular arrhythmias after MIs.
What is class 1b (especially lidocaine)
200
Treatment with tPA dramatically improves mortality in the first hour after MI. This is the _______.
golden hour.
300
DIAGNSOSIS DOUBLE!!!!!!!!!!!!!! Acetylcholine is injected into the coronary vessels in diagnostic coronary angiography and the vessel is seen to spasm. What diagnosis (1) can you make? A patient with myasthenia graves currently on pyridostigmine presents to your office complaining of increased weakness. An IV endophonium test is done with the patient reporting that her symptoms are getting better. What will you do now (2)?
What is (1) vasospastic angina and (2) increase the dose of pyridostigmine
300
Phenylephrine and methoxamine can be used to treat this condition by first stimulating vasoconstriction leading to a reflex bradycardia.
What is paroxysmal atrial tachycardia.
300
_________ and ________ are direct inhibitors of ENaC channels while _________ and _________ are inhibitors of the aldosterone receptor.
What is ENaC Channel Inhibitors: amiloride & triamterene Aldosterone Receptor Antagonists: spirolactone & eplerenone
300
This antiarrhythmic has antimuscarinic effects and can cause syncope.
What is quinidine.
300
Fondiparinux, Apixaban, and Rivaroxaban are all _________.
What is Factor X inhibitors.
400
What antimuscarinic can you use to prevent motion sickness? 1) Benztropine 2) Ipratropium 3) Glycopyrrholate 4) Scopolamine Prepare to defend your answer.
What is Scopolamine! It's a tertiary amine (along with atropine) so it can penetrate the CNS. What are the uses of the other drugs? Benztropine - treat extra-pyramidal symptoms Ipratropium: used as bronchodilator
400
Metoprolol, pindolol, and propranolol all share what special property?
What is membrane stabilizing action This means that they block Na currents (like Class 1 antiarrthymics). At high doses this can cause prolonged QRS duration and impaired conduction.
400
Name four of the side-effects of ACE Inhibitors.
What is 1. dry cough 2. skin rash 3. hypotension 4. acute renal failure 5. teratogenesis 6. angioedema 7. neutropenia (captopril) 8. loss of taste (captopril) 9. oral lesions (captopril)
400
This drug is particularly good at treating torsades.
What is magnesium.
400
Name all of the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors.
What is 1. abciximab 2. tirofaban 3. eptifbatide
500
What other classes of drugs have antimuscarinic effects?
What are: 1. Antihistamines 2. Tricyclic Antidepressants 3. Phenothiazine antipsychotics Quinidine and disopyramide are class Ib antiarrythmics that have antimuscarinic effects.
500
What beta blocker has intrinsic sympathomimetic activity and membrane stabilizing actions?
What is pindolol
500
_________ is a direct renin inhibitor that was deemed ineffective because it caused reactive renin release.
What is Aliskiren.
500
____________ and _________ are useful in rate control of atrial fibrillation while __________ and _________ are useful in the rhythm control of atrial fibrillation.
Class II and Class IV Class 1c and Class III
500
What three drugs inhibit ADP-mediated platelet aggregation.
What is P2Y12 receptors inhibitors: 1. clopidgrel 2. ticlopine 3. prasugrel