FEDERAL REQUIREMENTS
Who is responsible for developing REMS programs?
A.Drug sponsor B.FDA C.Pharmacy D.All of these
Drug Sponsor
Rationale:
The drug sponsor is responsible for developing REMS programs; however, the FDA is responsible for reviewing and approving REMS programs.
Which of the following drugs must be placed in a child-resistant container?
A.erythromycin ethylsuccinate tablets in packages not containing more than 16 g B.mebendazole tablets C.rosiglitazone tablets D.sodium fluoride tablets
Rosiglitazone
Rationale:
The Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970 does NOT exempt rosiglitazone (Avandia) from being packaged in a child-resistant container.
The HIPAA Administration Simplification Provisions include all of the following EXCEPT which one?
A.HIPAA Electronic Health Care Transactions and Code Standards B.HIPAA Privacy Rule C.HIPAA Safety Rule D.HIPAA Security Rule
HIPAA Safety Rule
Rationale:
The HIPAA Safety Rule is not a provision of the HIPAA Administration Simplification Provisions. The HIPAA Administration Simplification Provisions includes HIPAA Electronic Health Care Transactions and Code Standards, the HIPAA Privacy Rule, and the HIPAA Security Rule.
A pharmacy technician can perform all of the following tasks during order entry and the prescription-filling process EXCEPT
A.accept a new prescription over the telephone from a physician's office. B.adjudicate a prescription. C.collect patient information. D.request refill authorization from a physician's office.
accept a new prescription over the telephone from a physician's office
Rationale:
A pharmacy technician cannot accept a new prescription telephoned into the pharmacy from the physician's office.
Which of the following medications is contraindicated for an individual with hypertension?
A.diphenhydramine B.ibuprofen C.loperamide D.pseudoephedrine
pseudoephedrine
Rationale:
Pseudoephedrine is a central nervous stimulant that excites the heart, resulting in the heart's pumping harder at an increased rate
Which organization established a listing of drugs that are deemed to be hazardous?
A.FDA B.NIOSH C.OSHA D.TJC
NIOSH
Rationale:
The National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) established a list of drugs that are deemed to be hazardous and require special handling.
Which pharmacy law classified herbal products as dietary supplements rather than medications?
A.DSHEA 1994 B.FDCA 1938 C.OBRA '87 D.Prescription Drug Marketing Act of 1987
DSHEA 1994
Rationale:
DSHEA 1994 is the Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act, which classifies herbal products as dietary supplements instead of drugs. A manufacturer of such products is not allowed to make disease claims.
What is the maximum number of refills permitted by law for the following prescription?
Hydrocodone/acetaminophen 7.5 mg/325mg #40
1 tab PO q 4-6h prn pain
A.0 B.1 C.5 D.12
zero 0
Rationale:
The Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970 does not permit refills for Schedule II controlled substances, which Hydrocodone/ acetaminophen is classified as.
Which of the following is true regarding the scheduling of a medication?
A.Drug scheduling is based on an accepted drug usage in the United States and the severity of the adverse effects a patient may experience.
B.Drug scheduling is based on an accepted drug usage in the United States and its relative abuse potential and likelihood of causing dependence. C.Drug scheduling is based on an accepted drug usage in the United States and the number of reported adverse events associated with a medication.
D.Drug scheduling is based on medication cost, the relative abuse potential, and the likelihood of causing dependence.
Drug scheduling is based on an accepted drug usage in the United States and its relative abuse potential and likelihood of causing dependence.
Rationale:
The Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act states drug scheduling is based on an accepted drug usage in the United States and its relative abuse potential and likelihood of causing dependence.
Which of the following medications is a controlled substance?
A.cyclobenzaprine B.sumatriptan C.tramadol D.zolmitriptan
tramadol
Rationale:
Tramadol (Ultram) is a Schedule IV controlled substance.
What is the meaning of the acronym PDMP?
A.Prescription Drug Medication Program B.Prescription Drug Medicare Program C.Prescription Drug Maintenance Program D.Prescription Drug Monitoring Program
Prescription Drug Monitoring Program
If a pharmacy technician spills a hazardous substance in their eye, how long should they flood the affected eye with water or an isotonic eye wash?
A.5 minutes B.10 minutes C.15 minutes D.20 minutes
15 minutes
Rationale:
USP <800> requires an individual to flood an eye exposed to a hazardous substance for a minimum of 15 minutes using water or an isotonic solution.
What should a pharmacy technician do while processing a prescription if they receive a contraindication message on the pharmacy terminal screen?
A.Bypass the screen and continue to process the prescription.
B.Contact the physician and ask that a different drug be prescribed.
C.Inform the patient that you cannot fill the prescription because the physician made an error. D.Inform the pharmacist of the message.
Inform the pharmacist of the message.
Rationale:
The pharmacist should be informed of any contraindications that appear while a pharmacy technician is performing a DUE. A pharmacist is qualified and permitted to make these decisions regarding a patient's therapy. The role of the pharmacy technician is to perform technical tasks not make decisions on a patient's medication therapy.
Which piece of legislation permits a patient to return unused controlled substances to a designated pharmacy?
A.Combat Methamphetamine Act of 2005 B.Controlled Substance Act C.Poison Prevention Packaging Act D.Secure and Responsible Drug Disposal Act of 2010
Secure and Responsible Drug Disposal Act of 2010
Rationale:
Under the Secure and Responsible Drug Disposal Act of 2010, an individual is able to return unused controlled substance medications to a designated pharmacy for proper disposal in a safe and effective manner.
According to the Controlled Substances Act, how often must an inventory of controlled substances be taken?
A.Weekly B.Monthly C.Yearly D.Every 2 years
every 2 years
Rationale:
The Controlled Substances Act requires that a pharmacy perform a biennial (every 2 years) inventory of all controlled substances stocked in a pharmacy. An exact count must be performed on Schedule II medications, and an estimated count must be done on medications on Schedules III to V. An institution may perform an inventory more frequently if required by either state law or organizational policy.
Which medication requires a patient product insert be provided every time a patient receives a prescription for that medication?
A.Pravachol B.Premarin C.Prevacid D.Protonix
Premarin
Rationale:
A pharmacy is required to provide a patient product insert every time a patient receives a prescription for estrogens, fertility drugs, retinoids, and injectable and oral contraceptives. Premarin is an example of an estrogen.
A logbook of purchases of Scheduled Listed Chemical Products (SLCPs) must be maintained a minimum of ________.
A.6 months B.1 year C.18 months D.2 years
2 years
Rationale:
As part of the requirements of the Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act (CMEA), the logbook of purchases of Scheduled Listed Chemical Products (SLCPs) must be maintained for a minimum of 2 years.
Which legislation requires covered entities to establish safeguards to protect PHI?
A.HIPAA Electronic Health Care Transactions and Code Sets Standard B.HIPAA Privacy Rule C.HIPAA Security Rule D.HIPAA Transaction Rule
HIPAA Privacy Rule
Rationale:
The HIPAA Privacy Rule requires covered entities to establish safeguards to protect protected health information. The HIPAA Electronic Health Care Transactions and Code Sets Standard permits providers and health care plans to exchange electronic data using a standard format and standard code sets and requires the establishment of standard codes. The HIPAA Security Rule requires that encryption be used and security measures be utilized. HIPAA transactions requires both a number and name be included.
Where is pseudoephedrine stocked in a community pharmacy?
A.At the cash register B.Behind the pharmacy counter C.In the pharmacy refrigerator D.With decongestants
Behind the pharmacy counter
Rationale:
The Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act requires pseudoephedrine to be kept behind the pharmacy counter.
Which of the following is a characteristic of hazardous waste?
A.It's benign. B.It's corrosive. C.It has a pH between 2 and 12.5. D.It's stable.
It's corrosive.
Rationale:
To be classified as a hazardous waste product it must possess at least one of the following four characteristics: ignitability, reactivity, toxicity, or corrosivity.
How long is a DEA Form 222 valid after it has been written and signed by the pharmacist in charge?
A.72 hours B.30 days C.60 days D.180 days
60 days
Rationale:
A DEA Form 222 is valid for 60 days after being written by the pharmacist in charge at a pharmacy.
A pharmacy technician could be unintentionally exposed to hazardous drugs when performing any of the following tasks EXCEPT ________.
A.administering a hazardous drug to a patient B.cleaning up a spill of a hazardous drug C.performing manipulations with a hazardous drug D.receiving a hazardous drug
administering a hazardous drug to a patient
Rationale:
A pharmacy technician would not be administering a hazardous drug to a patient.
A person wishing to purchase a bottle of an "exempt narcotic" without a prescription must be at least ________.
A.14 years of age B.16 years of age C.18 years of age D.21 years of age
18 years of age
Rationale:
The Controlled Substances Act requires an individual to be at least 18 years of age to purchase an "exempt narcotic" without a prescription
An "exempt narcotic" is classified as a ________ medication under the Controlled Substances Act.
A.Schedule II B.Schedule III C.Schedule IV D.Schedule V
Schedule V
Rationale:
"Exempt narcotics" are classified as Schedule V medications under the Controlled Substances Act.
Which schedule is butorphanol?
A.Schedule II B.Schedule III C.Schedule IV D.Schedule V
Schedule IV
Rationale:
The DEA classified butorphanol as a Schedule IV drug.
What is the maximum number of different items that may be ordered on a paper DEA Form 222?
A.5 B.10 C.15 D.20
10
Rationale:
The maximum number of different Schedule II medications legally allowed on a Form 222 is 10. This information is found in the Controlled Substances Act of 1970.
Which schedule of medication may be purchased as an "exempt narcotic?"
A.Schedule II B.Schedule III C.Schedule IV D.Schedule V
SCHEDULE V
Rationale:
The Controlled Substances Act allows for certain controlled substances to be purchased without a prescription under specific conditions. These substances are Schedule V drugs. The medications involve products containing specific amounts of codeine and paregoric. To purchase a container, the individual must be at least 18 years of age, the product must be packaged in the manufacturer's original container (4-oz bottle), the exempt narcotic log must be signed, the product must be sold by a pharmacist, and the patient may only purchase one 4-oz bottle in 48 hr.
Which of the following is a requirement of the HIPAA Security Rule?
A.Hourly backups B.Sharing of passwords C.Use of encryption D.Use of universal security procedures and practices
Use of encryption
Which of the following should be done first if an individual is exposed to hazardous drugs?
A.Cleanse the affected skin with soap and water B.Document exposure in the employee's medical record
C.Obtain medical attention
D.Remove the gloves or gown
Remove the gloves or gown
Rationale:
The first thing to do if an individual is exposed to a hazardous drug is to remove his or her gloves or gown.
A pharmacy technician may perform all of these tasks EXCEPT
A.immunizing patients.
B.labeling medication doses, preparing intravenous admixtures, and maintaining the cleanliness of the laminar flow hood.
C.maintaining patient records, filling and dispensing routine orders for stock supplies, and preparing routine compounding.
D.prepackaging drugs in single dose or unit of use, maintaining inventories of drugs.
immunizing patients.
Rationale:
In most states a pharmacy technician may not immunize a patient. The may collect patient information for the pharmacist prior to the immunization.
A drug must meet at least one of six criteria to be deemed hazardous. All the following are included in these criteria EXCEPT________.
A.carcinogenicity B.genotoxicity C.organ toxicity at low doses in humans or animals D.reproductive toxicity in animals
reproductive toxicity in animals
Rationale:
Reproductive toxicity in animals is not one of the six criteria. The criteria are as follows: carcinogenicity; teratogenicity or developmental toxicity; reproductive toxicity in humans; organ toxicity at low doses in humans or animals; and genotoxicity and new drugs that mimic existing hazardous drugs in structure or toxicity.
An inspector from the state board of pharmacy appears unannounced at the pharmacy on a Monday morning seeking to examine various pharmacy records. Because of the small confines of the pharmacy, these records are not readily accessible. What do you do?
A.Because of the confidential nature of these records, you inform the inspector that it would be a violation of HIPAA regulations to provide them.
B.You inform the inspector that the records are not readily retrievable but you can have them available in 72 hours.
C.You offer to fax the inspector copies of the required records.
D.You request that the inspector provide you with a subpoena.
You inform the inspector that the records are not readily retrievable but you can have them available in 72 hours
Rationale:
Pharmacy regulations require that all pharmacy records are easily retrievable and must be provided within 72 hours of the request
According to USP <800>, what is the minimum number of air changes per hour when compounding hazardous drugs?
A.6 B.12 C.18 D.20
12
Rationale:
USP <800> requires a minimum of 12 air changes per hour when compounding hazardous drugs.
When must personal protective equipment (PPE) be worn when handling hazardous drugs?
A.Receiving hazardous drugs B.Compounding hazardous drugs C.Transporting hazardous drugs D.All of these
ALL OF THE ANSWERS ARE CORRECT
Rationale:
Personal Protective Equipment (PPEs) must be worn when receiving, storing, transporting, compounding, deactivating/decontaminating, cleaning and disinfecting, and during spill control of hazardous drugs.
Contrasting the function of the National Association of Boards of Pharmacy and the state boards of pharmacy (BOPs), which of the following is correct?
A.The National Boards of Pharmacy accredit professional degree programs.
B.The state BOPs are responsible for insuring safe working conditions.
C.The National Boards of Pharmacy rely on the state BOPs for assistance.
D.The state BOPs rely on the National Boards of Pharmacy for assistance.
The state BOPs rely on the National Boards of Pharmacy for assistance.
Rationale:
The state BOPs rely on the National Boards of Pharmacy for assistance. OSHA is responsible for insuring safe working conditions, and the ACPE accredits professional degree programs.
A patient is diagnosed with multiple myeloma and is prescribed Thalomid. Which is the maximum days' supply that can be prescribed?
A.14 days B.15 days C.28 days D.30 days
28 days
Rationale:
The doctor may provide a prescription for up to a 28-day supply of Thalomid with no refills.
Cytotoxic drugs from a pharmacy are disposed by which of the following methods?
A.Discarding them in the pharmacy garbage B.Placing them in a sharps container
C.Placing them in a specialized sharps container labeled "hazardous waste"
D.Rinsing them down the sink or flushing down the toilet
Placing them in a specialized sharps container labeled "hazardous waste"
Rationale:
Cytotoxic drugs are disposed by placing them in a specialized "sharps container."
A patient is asking for a recommendation for an over-the-counter analgesic. Who can make this recommendation?
A.Pharmacy cashier B.Pharmacy technician C.Pharmacist D.All of the above
Pharmacist
OBRA 90
A mother is waiting for an antibiotic prescription of amoxicillin suspension for her child and asks the pharmacy technician what she should give her child for a fever. What should the pharmacy technician do?
A.Inform the pharmacist of the parent's question. B.Offer to call the physician for a prescription to reduce a child's fever.
C.Recommend acetaminophen to the mother. D.Tell the mother to apply cold compresses to the child's forehead.
Inform the pharmacist of the parent's question.
Rationale:
Making a recommendation for an over-the-counter (OTC) medication can only be performed by the pharmacist. The pharmacist is collecting information from the patient and making a decision on the appropriate therapy. The role of the pharmacy technician does not permit them to make recommendations to a patient.
What form must be submitted to the DEA to destroy controlled substances?
A.DEA Form 41 B.DEA Form 49 C.DEA Form 224 D.DEA Form 225
DEA FORM 41
Rationale:
The Controlled Substances Act of 1970 requires that pharmacies submit DEA Form 41 in triplicate before the destruction of any controlled substances.
Which of the following medications requires a woman to use birth control for 1 month before treatment begins, during treatment, and for 1 month after treatment has ceased?
A.erythromycin B.isotretinoin C.minocycline D.tetracycline
isotretinoin
Rationale:
Female patients are required to use birth control before, during, and 1 month after therapy of isotretinoin because of the iPledge program.
The first letter of a DEA number on a prescription from a physician's assistant is ________.
A.B
B.F
C.M
D.P
M
Which organization establishes standards for the identity, strength, and purity of medicines?
A.DEA B.FDA C.TJC D.USP
USP
Rationale:
The USP establishes standards for the identity, strength, and purity of medicines.
Which standards must be followed during extemporaneous compounding?
A.Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) B.Food and Drug Administration (FDA) C.Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP) D.Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA)-90
Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP)
Rationale:
GMP stands for good manufacturing practices, which are followed in compounding prescriptions. The DEA
is responsible for the Controlled Substances Act; the FDA ensures that food and medications are pure, safe, and effective; and OBRA ‘90 requires drug utilization evaluation and counseling patients.
A pregnant female presents a prescription for isotretinoin to be filled. Which of the following should a pharmacy technician do?
A.Alert the pharmacist of the situation.
B.Contact the prescriber to determine if they were aware the patient was pregnant.
C.Fill the prescription.
D.Return the prescription to the patient.
Alert the pharmacist of the situation.
Rationale:
Isotretinoin taken during pregnancy may result in birth defects. The pharmacy technician must notify the pharmacist immediately.
Which of the following is required by OBRA 90?
A.Maintain patient confidentiality.
B.Perform a biennial inventory of controlled substance.
C.Perform drug utilization evaluation for each patient.
D.Package a prescription using child-resistant packaging.
Perform drug utilization evaluation for each patient.
Rationale:
OBRA '90 requires a pharmacist to perform a drug utilization evaluation (DUE; formerly known as drug utilization review [DUR]) for each patient. The Controlled Substance Act requires a pharmacy to perform a biennial inventory. HIPAA requires pharmacy personnel to maintain patient confidentiality. The Poison Prevention Packaging Act requires a prescription to be packaged in a child-resistant container.
Which of the following is classified as an "exempt" narcotic?
A.acetaminophen with codeine B.guaifenesin with codeine C.loperamide D.lorazepam
guaifenesin with codeine
Rationale:
Guaifenesin with codeine is classified as an "exempt narcotic."
Which of the following medications is classified as an SLCP?
A.atorvastatin B.metformin C.oxycodone D.pseudoephedrine
pseudoephedrine
Rationale:
Pseudoephedrine, ephedrine, and PPA are classified as scheduled listed chemical products (SLCPs) under the Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act.
Which color of C should the pharmacy technician stamp on filed-paper, controlled substance prescriptions?
A.Black B.Blue C.Green D.Red
RED
Rationale:
The Controlled Substance Act requires that a red C be stamped on filed-paper, controlled substance prescriptions.
Certain medications have severe side effects and are only approved for certain populations. Which of the following describes stipulations for the use of thalidomide?
A.CARE is designed to streamline the process. B.The system is used to detect agranulocytosis. C.The ANC is one of the measures that determine if a patient may take the medication or not.
D.A woman must have a negative pregnancy test result within the 24 hours before beginning treatment.
A woman must have a negative pregnancy test result within the 24 hours before beginning treatment.
Rationale:
A woman must have a negative pregnancy test result within the 24 hours before beginning treatment with thalidomide. In addition, she will need to be tested for pregnancy in a laboratory weekly during the first 4 weeks of her treatment and then once every 4 weeks if she has regular menstrual cycles or once every 2 weeks if she has irregular menstrual cycles. The other three choices represent stipulations of using Clozaril.
How often is a biennial inventory taken in a pharmacy?
A.Monthly B.Twice per year C.Yearly D.Every 2 years
EVERY 2 YEARS
Rationale:
Biennial means every 2 years. A biennial inventory is required of all controlled substances by the DEA.
The Kefauver-Harris Amendment of 1962 did not include a provision that ________.
A.requires all medications in the United States to be pure, safe, and effective
B.controlled substances are placed in one of five schedules
C.established procedures for both drug applications and investigational drugs
D.drug manufacturers are required to be responsible for good manufacturing processes
controlled substances are placed in one of five schedules
Rationale:
The Comprehensive Drug Abuse and Control Act of 1970 put controlled substances in five categories. The other three choices are part of the Kefauver-Harris Amendment of 1962.
A valid prescription for a controlled substance must contain which of the following?
A.Prescriber's DEA number B.Prescriber's NPI number C.Prescriber's medical license D.Prescriber's Medicare number
Prescriber's DEA number
Rationale:
A valid prescription for a controlled substance must contain the prescriber's DEA number.
Which organization may discipline a pharmacy technician if he or she engages in improper conduct relating to the practice of pharmacy?
A.APHA B.BOP C.NABP D.All of these
BOARD OF PHARMACY (BOP)
Rationale:
The state board of pharmacy (BOP) is the regulatory state agency that oversees the practice of pharmacy in a given state. The BOP defines regulations affecting pharmacy as well as the roles, duties, and expectations of pharmacists and pharmacy technicians in that state. The BOP has the authority to discipline pharmacies, pharmacists, and pharmacy technicians for improper behavior.
The pharmacy technician observes an expired bottle of atorvastatin on the shelf. What should they do?
A.Dispose of it with hazardous waste.
B.Fill out a DEA form 41.
C.Inform the pharmacist and place it in the pharmacy trash.
D.Remove the bottle from the shelf and segregate it with other expired medications.
Remove the bottle from the shelf and segregate it with other expired medications.
Rationale:
Expired noncontrolled substances should be removed from shelf, segregated with other expired medications, and disposed according to the institution's policy and procedure.
What is the meaning of the acronym REMS?
A.Reverse Epidermal and Muscular Syringe B.Risk Enterprise and Mobility Sequence
C.Risk Evaluation and Migration Strategy
D.Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy
Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy
Which of the following has been identified by MEDMARX as the leading cause of medication errors?
A.Illegible handwriting B.Knowledge deficit C.Performance deficit D.Transcription inaccuracy
PERFORMANCE DEFICIT
Rationale:
MEDMARX has identified performance deficit as the largest cause of medication errors.
Which of the following drugs requires prescribers, pharmacists, and patients to register with the FDA iPledge program?
A.erythromycin B.isotretinoin C.minocycline D.tetracycline
ISOTRETNOIN
Rationale:
Absorica (isotretinoin) prescriptions require the participation of the prescriber, pharmacy, and patient in the iPledge program
What type of hospital error occurs when there is a failure to administer an ordered dose to a patient before the next dose is due?
A.Improper dose error B.Omission error C.Wrong drug administration D.Wrong time error
Omission error
Under what conditions must an injectable hazardous medication be prepared?
A.In a biological safety hood
B.In the designated compounding area of the pharmacy
C.In a horizontal laminar airflow hood
D.In a vertical laminar airflow hood
In a biological safety hood
Rationale:
Hazardous drugs are prepared in a biological safety hood. Extemporaneous compounding is performed in a designated area of the pharmacy. IVs are prepared in a horizontal laminar airflow hood and antineoplastics are prepared in a vertical laminar airflow hood.
A pharmacy technician has accidentally spilled a pint of guaifenesin/codeine, which is a controlled substance. Which DEA form is used to document the spillage of a controlled substance in a pharmacy?
A.DEA form 41 B.DEA form 106 C.DEA form 222 D.DEA form 224
DEA form 41
Rationale:
DEA form 41 is used to designate controlled substances that are being surrendered for destruction due to damage or being expired. DEA form 106 is used to report the theft of controlled substances. DEA form 222 is used to order Schedule II medications. DEA form 224 is used to register a pharmacy with the DEA that will permit it to dispense controlled substances.
Which of the following is an example of a Schedule II controlled substance?
A.acetaminophen + codeine B.gabapentin C.methylphenidate D.carisoprodol
methylphenidate
Rationale:
Methylphenidate (Concerta or Ritalin) is a Schedule II controlled substance. Acetaminophen + codeine (Tylenol with codeine) is classified as a Schedule III controlled substance; carisoprodol (Soma) and gabapentin (Neurontin) are Schedule V controlled substances.
Which answer best describes the information required during the sale of an "exempt narcotic"?
A.Dispensing date, printed name, signature and address of the buyer, name and quantity of the product sold, and the pharmacist's signature B.Dispensing date, signature and phone number of the buyer, product name, and product company with lot number
C.Dispensing date, signature of the buyer, name and quantity of the product sold, price of the product sold, and lot number of the product sold D.Dispensing date, buyer signature, pharmacist signature, product name and amount, and expiration date of the product
Dispensing date, printed name, signature and address of the buyer, name and quantity of the product sold, and the pharmacist's signature
Rationale:
The sale of an "exempt narcotic" requires that an individual be at least 18 years of age and a resident of the community and that only one 4-oz bottle be sold in the original manufacturer's bottle every 48 hours. The patient must complete the exempt narcotic log (record), which includes the date of the purchase and the patient's name and address. The pharmacist must make sure that the name, quantity of the product, and selling price of the product is entered in the "exempt narcotic book." The pharmacist must sign his or her name in the book as the seller of the "exempt narcotic."
How long must electronic prescriptions for controlled substances be maintained by a pharmacy?
A.1 year B.2 years C.3 years D.4 years
2 YEARS
Rationale:
Electronic prescriptions for controlled substances must be maintained a minimum of two years unless federal, state, or local laws require otherwise.
What number must appear on a prescription for alprazolam?
A.DEA number B.Medicare number C.NPI number D.Social Security number
DEA number
Rationale:
Alprazolam is a controlled substance. The Controlled Substances Act requires a prescriber's DEA number appear on all prescriptions for controlled substances.
Which antidiarrheal medication is a controlled substance?
A.atropine/diphenoxylate B.bismuth subsalicylate C.loperamide D.psyllium
atropine/diphenoxylate
Rationale:
Atropine/diphenoxylate (Lomotil) is classified as a Schedule V controlled substance by the DEA. Bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto Bismol), loperamide (Imodium) and psyllium (Metamucil) are OTC medications. All four medications are indicated for diarrhea.
All the following medications require a patient product insert to be given to the patient EXCEPT ________.
A.estrogen medications B.isotretinoin C.nitroglycerin tablets D.progesterone medications
Rationale:
The pharmacy does not need to provide a patient with a PPI each time he or she receives a prescription for nitroglycerin.
What do the last two numbers of a National Drug Code (NDC) number indicate?
A.Drug manufacturer B.Drug product C.Drug package D.Drug quantity
Drug package
Which DEA form is used when a pharmacy uses a reverse distributor to dispose of outdated controlled substances?
A.DEA form 41 B.DEA form 106 C.DEA form 222 D.DEA form 224
DEA FORM 222
Rationale:
DEA form 222 is used when disposing of controlled substances through a reverse distributor. DEA form 41 is used when requesting permission for the destruction of controlled substances, DEA form 106 is to report the theft of controlled substances, and DEA form 224 is used to register a pharmacy with the DEA to be able to dispense controlled substances.