OUTLIERS
SECURITY COVERAGE
RETURNS
WFM
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
100

Zero coupon bonds are issued at _____ price.
A. Premium
B. Par
C. Discounted

C. Discounted

100

What differentiates a Collateralized Mortgage Obligation (CMO) from a Mortgage-Backed Security (MBS)?

A. A CMO is issued only by the government
B. A CMO always has a fixed interest rate
C. A CMO's cash flows are distributed among tranches based on waterfall rules
D. A CMO is backed by corporate loans, not mortgages

C. A CMO's cash flows are distributed among tranches based on waterfall rules

100

Unaccounted trade can be ignored for _____

A. Futures
B. Currency Forwards
C. Equities

C. Equities

100

0/10 resources: what does that mean?

a No. resources available
b. 10 resources left
c. None of the above

a No. resources available

100

In which application can you get the portfolio weights for all the report types subscribed by the client?

A. PRU
B. PSD
C. DDS
D. Portfolio Health

D. Portfolio Health

200

Which combination of identifiers are most reliably signals a distressed security?
A. PrinType = IO, Rating = BB
B. PrinType = PFD, Rating = BBB or A
C. PrinType = SEN, Rating = AAA
D. PrinType = MEZ/JUN/EQ, Rating = CCC or lower/NR

D. PrinType = MEZ/JUN/EQ, Rating = CCC or lower/NR

200

Which field in the PINT UI displays whether the security is Corporate, Mortgage, or Muni?

A. Principal Type
B. Sector-Main
C. Asset Class
D. Asset Type

B. Sector-Main

200

Which of the following return calculations is not present for Equity PA clients?

A. Paydown
B. Coupon
C. Currency
D. Price

A. Paydown

200

This notification indicates that the dashboard has detected a difference between the workflow as defined in dashboard and the workflow as defined in the cornerstone.

a. Out of Order
b. Parse Error
c. Out of Sync
d. None of the above

c. Out of Sync

200

Which applicatiuon will indicate that the bond has optionality?

A. PSD
B. Fixed Income Setting
C. Security Overview
D. None of the choices

C. Security Overview

300

Why are Interest Only (IO) securities generally low priced?
A. Because they are always issued below par regardless of market conditions
B. Because IO values increase with rising interes rates
C. Because IO bonds have fixed high coupons until maturity
D. Because early prepayments reduce expected cash flows, lowering present value

D. Because early prepayments reduce expected cash flows, lowering present value

300

Which vendor exclusively provides Bank Loans pricing but not T&C coverage?

A. WSO
B. Markit
C. FBL
D. FTC

A. WSO

300

Where can we check if the client CSTMs have monthly or daily returns being sent in for SPAR?

A. PLM
B. FM
C. PA3
D. Prove It

A. PLM

300

This indicates that a batch on ECS attempted to process data for a date that has already been processed with analytics or tried to send bonds to ECS with a price of 0 or N/A, resulting in the process being halted.

a. Data Validation Check
b. No Requests Sent
c. Expected Data Check
d. Soft failure

b. No Requests Sent

300

If a stock has a 10:1, what happens to the market value, what happens to the price

A. Market value goes down by a factor of 10, price goes down by a factor of 10
B. Market value goes up by a factor of 10, price goes up by a factor of 10
C. Market value stays the same, price goes up by a factor of 10
D. Market value stays the same, price down by a factor of 10

Market value stays the same, price down by a factor of 10

400

A Bond can have ____ options to allow issuer of investor to teminate the bond prior to maturiity at pre-determined strike prices.

A. Bullet bonds
B. Embedded
C. Extendible bonds
D. None of the choices


Embedded

400

Which of the following combinations of vendor and asset type is incorrectly matched?

A. S&P - U.S. Municipal Bonds
B. WSO - Bank Loans
C. IDC North America (ICE) - U.S. & Canadian Corporate/Sovereign/Agency
D. Colson Associates - Canadian MBS

D. Colson Associates - Canadian MBS

400

TRUE or FALSE: A short position is defined by negative shares. If you will short sell you can either have a stale transaction or a negative purchase

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

A. TRUE

400

For "No dates file supplied for Integration report!" to whom should we escalate if the dates file
was not generated?

a. parser.oncall
b. CS20 Support
c. Account Team
d. IBS Services Product Management

a. parser.oncall

400

Why must analysts filter username by "-" and "system" when morphing into PINT?

A. To view only newly added securities in MSL
B. To ensure recurring failures are prioritized
C. To exclude vendor-provided securities
D. To filter out convertible securities

A. To view only newly added securities in MSL

500

For covertible securities, the bond's fair value can be estimated by:

A. Face value/ equity price x conversion ratio
B. equity price x par value x coupon rate
C. market conversion price/ converstion x par value
D. converstion ratio x equity market price/ par value

D. converstion ratio x equity market price/ par value

500

What is the Futures Montage display used for?

A. Tracking clients holding
B. Forecasting future yields
C. Showing active contracts for a particular futures root
D. Displaying prices provided by the client

Displaying prices provided by the client

500

What are the factors directly affecting coupon return?

A. Accrued Interest, Income & Prices/MVs
B. Accrued Interest, Income only & principal payment
C. Accrued Interest, Income only

A. Accrued Interest, Income & Prices/MVs

500

This file creates a lock due to the same named file on the server.

a. PD2Support
b. PD2SingleSupport
c. PRBSupport
d. PublisherPD

a. PD2Support

500

Is it possible for the client to bookmark a portfolio under Portfolio Health Application?

A. Yes
B. No

A. Yes