Ready to Mingle
Yikes
Put Me to Sleep
Ouchie
Misc.
100

Food or drink that should be avoided while taking simvistatin

Grapefruit and grapefruit juice

100

There's an increased risk of ___ and ___ after narcotic use in infant population.

Apnea and hypoventilation

100

Recommended hours of fasting prior to an elective sedation for a patient that had a full meal vs infant formula (or light meal w/o fat) vs breast milk vs clear liquids

8hrs

6hrs

4hrs

2hrs

100

Name 2 tools used for pain assessment in children

Face, Legs, Activity, Cry, and Consolability (FLACC) tool

FACES Pain Scale (FPS)

100

The process by which drug gains access to the bloodstream from the site of drug administration (bioavailability)

Absorption

200

Classify this reaction--nonimmune hemolytic anemia in a patient with G6PD after taking oral primaquine

Idiosyncratic adverse drug reaction

200

List at least 3 risk factors for sedation-related adverse effects

Airway obstruction history

Obstructive sleep apnea

Inability to properly handle airway secretions

Craniofacial anomalies

Chronic lung disease

Myocardial dysfunction

Mental status changes

Poorly controlled seizures

Hydrocephalus (and other causes of increased intracranial pressure)

Acute illness (upper respiratory infection, cough, GI symptoms)

200

These 2 sedation agents reduce ICP, which is useful to consider for patients with head trauma

Propofol

Etomidate

200

According to 2012 WHO guidelines, treat mild pain with either ____ or ____, before adding a weak ____ for moderate-to-severe pain.

Acetaminophen

Ibuprofen

Opioid

200

Pharmaceutical ____ have the same therapeutic moiety, though not necessarily the same quantity or dosage form

Alternatives


Pharmaceutical equivalents have the exact amounts of the active drug ingredient in the same dosage form and routine of administration and meet applicable standards of purity, quality, strength, and identity

300

List at least 2 inducers and inhibitors of cytochrome P450

Inducers: phenytoin, phenobarbitol, carbamazepine, griseofulvin, rifampin

Inhibitors: erythromycin, clarithromycin, azole antifungals, protease inhibitors

300

____ precedes ____, which is why relying solely on oxygen saturations via pulse oximetry is dangerous

Hypoventilation

Hypoxia

300

If you have these two food allergies, propofol is absolutely contraindicated

egg allergy or soy allergy

300

Most potent opioid

IV Fentanyl (opioid equianalgesic dose 0.2mg)

300

The number of half-lives necessary to reach a steady state for a medication with first-order drug elimination

4 to 5 (94% of steady state vs 97%)

400

____ order elimination kinetics has a drug clearance rate that is dependent on and proportional to the drug concentration, whereas ____ order elimination kinetics is not

First (linear progression)

Zero (saturable kinetics, has flat rate)

400

List at least 3 potential adverse events of sedation

Airway obstruction (laryngospasm)

Hypoventilation and apnea (central or obstructive)

Aspiration

Cardiac depression

400

Absolute contraindication for Etomidate

adrenal insufficiency (inhibits 11-beta-hydroxylase)

400

Least potent opioid

PO Codeine (opioid equianalgesic dose 180-200mg)

400

Composition of magic mouthwash

1:1:1 mixture of 2% viscous lidocaine, aluminum and magnesium hydroxides, and diphenhydramine suspension liquid

500

True or False: the loading dose in a patient with renal failure is the same as that in a healthy patient

TRUE


(and if the drug is cleared by the kidney the subsequent maintenance dose differs)

500

Describe the ASA Class types for assessment of sedation suitability

Class 1: normal healthy patient; excellent sedation suitability

Class 2: mild systemic disease without functional limitation; good sedation suitability

Class 3: severe systemic disease with definite functional limitation; intermediate-to-poor sedation suitability

Class 4: severe systemic disease with a constant threat to life; poor sedation suitability (benefits rarely outweigh the risks)

Class 5: a very ill patient not expected to survive without operative intervention

Class 6: declared brain dead whose organs are being removed for donor purposes

500

Name the 4 degrees of sedation and level of monitoring required

Minimal sedation: anxiolysis; Monitoring: observing via intermittent assessment by a supervising practitioner

Moderate sedation: light sleep; Monitoring: continuous pulse oximetry, continuous HR, and intermittent RR and BP

Deep sedation: deep sleep; Monitoring: continuous pulse oximetry, continuous HR, and intermittent RR and BP

General anesthesia: loss of consciousness; Monitoring: anesthesiology fellowship

500

Which local topical analgesic (LET or EMLA) has quicker onset, and by how much?

LET (onset 30min)


EMLA (onset 1hr)

500

What is the equation for volume of distribution (VD)?

VD = DT/CP

Volume of distribution (VD) = total amount of drug in the body (DT) divided by the plasma concentration (CP)