Specimen Collection
&
Transport
Stains
Analytical Bacteriology
Mycology
Post Analytical
100

The proper blood-to-broth ratio for blood cultures to reduce the antibacterial effect of serum in adults is:

a. 1:2

b. 1:3

c. 1:10

d. 1:30

What is 1:10 

100

The morphology of this Gram stain is:

What is Gram positive cocci in chains

100

The most frequent cause of prosthetic heart valve infections occurring within 2-3 months after surgery is:

a. Strep pneumoniae

b. Strep pyogenes

c. Staph aureus

d. Staph epidermidis


What is Staph epidermidis


100

Using a fluorescent microscope, a wet preparationof the skin tissue reveals fluorescent sepatate hyphae. The smear was prepared using:

a. acridine orange

b. calcofluor white

c. Gomori methanamine silver

d. periodic acid-Schiff

What is Calcofluor White

100

This fungal organism is urease + and phenol oxidase +: 

a. Cryptococcus neoformans

b. Malassezia furfur

c. Rodotorula

d. Trichophyton mentagrophytes


What is Cryptococcus neoformans

200

The most appropriate method for collecting a urine specimen from a patient with an indwelling catheter is:

a. remove catheter, cut the tip, and submit for culture

b. disconnect catheter from bag, aseptically collect urine from the terminal end of catheter

c. asceptically collect urine directly from the drainage bac

d. aspirate urine aseptically from the catheter tubing.

What is D-aspirate urine aseptically from the catheter tubing.

200

Upon review of a sputum Gram stain, the technician notes that all the neutrophil nuclei in the mear stained dark blue. The best explanation for this finding is the:

a. iodine was omitted from the staining procedure

b. slide was inadequately decolorized with acetone/alcohol

c. sputum smear was prepared too thin

d. cellular components have stained as expected

What is B

200

"Nutritionally varient" streptococci are:

a. enterococci

b. Group D enterococcus 

c. beta hemolytic streptococci

d. in the genera Granulicatella and Abiotrophia

What is in the Genera Granulicatella and Abiotropia

200

Large yeast cells with broad-based budding are characteristic of:

a. Histoplasma capsulatum 

b. Cryptococcus neoformans 

c. Blastomyces dermatitidis 

d. Candida albicans 


What is Blastomyces dermatitidis


200

Incorrect results on a urine culture were recorded in the patient record. Therefore, a problem action form is required and should contain:

a. date, problem, investigation, corrective action, outcome

b. employee certification number, problem, corrective action

c. employee years of experience, date, investigation of issue

d. signatures of attending physician and pathologist

What is A- date, problem, investigation, corrective action, outcome

300

Sodium polyanetholsulfonate (SPS) is used as an anticoagulant for blood cultures because it:

a. inactivates penicillin and cephalosporins

b. prevents clumping of red cells

c. inactivates neutrophils and components of serum complement

d. facilitates growth of anaerobes


What is C

300

The morphology of this Gram stain is: 

What is GPB

300

Propionibacterium acnes is most often associated with:

a. food poisoning

b. post-antibiotic diarrhea

c. tooth decay

d. blood culture contamination

What is blood culture contamination

300

Children who have infections with beta-hemolytic streptococci can develop:

a. acute pyelonephritis

b. acute glomerulonephritis

c. chronic glomerulonephritis 

d. nephrosis


What is acute glomerulonephritis

300

Microbiology-related urgent or critical results include positive

a. blood cultures, cerebrospinal fluid cultures and acid-fast smears

b. blood cultures, urine cultures and ova & parasite examinations.

c. cerebrospinal fluid cultures, fungal cultures and ova & parasite examinations

d. streptococcus pyogenes throat screens, bronchial washing cultures and fungal cultures

What is A- blood cultures, cerebrospinal fluid cultures and acid-fast smears

400

A male urethral discharge specimen submitted for culture should be inoculated to:

a. sheep blood and phenylethyl alcohol agars

b. eosin-methylene blue and sheep blood agars

c. thioglycollate broth and chocolate agar

d. chocolate and Modified Thayer-Martin agars

What is D

400

The principle difference between the Ziehl-Neelsen acid-fast stain technique and the Kinyoun acid-fast stain technique is the:

a. type of dye used

b. type of microscope use to interpret stained              smears.

c. strength of acid decolorizer

d. use of heat to allow the dye to penetrate organism

What is D

400

Microorganisms resembling Mycoplasma pneumoniae have been isolated from the blood of patients treated with antibiotics that:

a. complex with flagellar protein

b. interferes with cell membrane function

c. inhibit proten synthesis

d. intefere with cell wall synthesis

What is intefere with cell wall synthesis?

400

Dimorphic fungus is associated with bird and bat droppings:

a. Blastomyces dermatitidis 

b. Histoplasma capsulatum 

c. Sporothrix schenckii 

d. Cryptococcus neoformans 


What is Histoplasma capsulatum 

400

Data on positive blood cultures due to contaminants are collected and distributed to outreach clinicians so they can review the:

a. labs ability to identify contaminants growing from a blood culture

b. office phlebotomist's procedure for proper collection of a blood culture

c. rate at which the blood culture instrument identifies contaminated blood culture bottles

d. organism most commonly identified as a contaminant.

What is B- office phlebotomist's procedure for proper collection of a blood culture

500

Campylobacter jejuni isolation requires the fecal specimen be:

a. inoculated onto selective plating media and incubated in reduced oxygen with added CO2 at 42°C.

b. stored in tryptic soy broth before plating to ensure growth of the organism

c. inoculated onto selective plating media and incubated at both 35°C and at room temperature

d. incubated at 35°C for 2 hours in Cary-Blair media before inoculating onto selective plating media.

What is A

500

A relapsing fever is humans is caused by:

a. Borrelia recurrentis

b. Brucella abortus

c. Leptospira interrogans

d. Spirillum minus

What is A

500

Which of the following anaerobes is inhibited by sodium polyanethol sulfonate (SPS)?

a. Bacteroides fragilis

b. Propionibacterium acnes

c. Peptostreptococcus anaerobius

d. Veillonella parvula


What is Peptostreptococcus anerobius?

500

A gardener develops nodular lesions along lymphatic channels after a rose-thorn puncture. Who am I? A gardener develops nodular lesions along lymphatic channels after a rose-thorn puncture. Who am I?

a. Blastomyces dermatitidis 

b. Candida albicans 

c. Sporothrix schenckii 

d. Cryptococcus neoformans 


What is Sporothrix schenckii 

500

A mass spectrometer detects which property of ionized molecules:

What is mass to charge ratio?