Chapter 46A
Chapter 46B
Chapter 47
Chapter 48A
Chapter 48B
100

The nurse providing education on eye protection suggests the special need for protective eyewear for which clients? (Select all that apply.)


A.   Cab driver

B.   College student

C.   Lifeguard

D.   Racquetball player

E.   Registered nurse

C, D

Lifeguards are in need of eye protection from ultraviolet (UV) A and UVB rays because of exposure to the sun. People who play racquetball need to wear protective eyewear to prevent possible eye injury.

100

A client is admitted to the emergency department with metal shards in the right eye. Which test is contraindicated for this client?

A.   Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

B.   Ophthalmoscopy

C.   Radioisotope scanning

D.  Snellen chart

A

Because the client has metal in the eye, MRI is an absolute contraindication.

100

What is the action of miotic drugs that constrict the pupils in the client with glaucoma?

A.  Decrease the inflammatory process

B.  Enhance aqueous circulation to site of absorption

C.   Increase the production of vitreous humor

D.   Vasoconstrict the blood vessels in the eye


B

Miotics are used to improve the flow of fluid (aqueous humor) and circulation and decrease intraocular pressure in clients with glaucoma.

100

A client is having a stapedectomy. Which form of postoperative communication is most effective for the nurse to use?

A.   Gesturing

B.   Sign language

C.   Speaking

D.   Writing

D

Writing is the most effective way to communicate with the client who has undergone a stapedectomy.

100

An older adult client comes in for a routine visit. During the assessment he is irritable and says, “Speak up and quit mumbling!” How will the nurse respond?

A.  Apologizes and speaks louder and clearer

B.   Asks whether the client has a hearing loss

C.   Shout to ensure that the client can hear

D.   Suggests that the client move to a soundproof examination room to improve his hearing

A

The nurse would repeat and speak more clearly first and then determine whether further assessment is needed.

It would not be assumed that the client has a hearing loss; this suggestion may make the client more irritable, especially if the client is in denial. Shouting is not recommended because it can make understanding more difficult. Soundproof rooms are used for hearing tests, not to improve hearing

200

When performing an eye or vision assessment, which comment by the client alerts the nurse that immediate care by an ophthalmologist is needed?

A.   “One eye is green and the other eye is blue.”

B.   “My eyes are red and itchy.”

C.   “My vision has been getting worse gradually.”

D.   “Something hit my eye while I was cutting grass.”

D

The client who is experiencing trauma, a foreign body in the eye, sudden ocular pain, or sudden redness should be seen immediately by an ophthalmologist.

200

The nurse is teaching a client who is scheduled for an ultrasonography of the eye. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instruction?

A.  “I’ll have to wear a bandage over my eye after the test.”

B.   “I will be awake during this test.”

C.   “I won’t hear the high-frequency sound waves.”

D.   “This test will help determine whether my retina is detached."

A

The client does not have to wear a bandage after the test because no special follow-up care is needed after an ultrasonography of the eye. However, the client should be reminded not to rub or touch the eye until the effects of the anesthetic drops have worn off.

200

A bedridden client with reduced vision has been admitted. Which nursing interventions will ease the client’s hospital stay? (Select all that apply.)


A.   Announce name and purpose when entering the client’s room.

B.   Explain food positions on the tray using a clock face as the example.

C.   Orient the client to the location of the call  light, and keep it in that place.

D.   Orient the client to the room surroundings  and equipment.

E.   Speak in a loud, clear voice.

A, B, C, D

Staff would always introduce themselves to clients, with or without visual issues. Using a standard clock face to explain food locations on the tray will assist the client with self-feeding. Providing room orientation to the client is important to improve his or her ability for self-care. Orienting the client to the room and equipment in the room will allow him or her to have increased comfort with surroundings

200

A client is in the immediate postoperative period after tympanoplasty. How does the nurse position the client?

A.  On the affected side

B.   Supine, with eyes toward the ceiling

C.   With the head elevated 60 degrees

D.   With the affected ear facing up

D

The nurse keeps the client flat, with the head turned to the side and the operative ear facing up, for at least 12 hours after surgery.

200

The nurse is assessing a client with recent changes in hearing. After taking a medication history, which drugs does the nurse identify as possible causes of the client’s hearing change? (Select all that apply.)


A.   Acetaminophen (Tylenol)

B.   Beta blockers

C.   Erythromycin

D.   Ibuprofen (Advil)

E.   Insulin

F.    Furosemide (Lasix)

C, D, F

The nurse identifies erythromycin, ibuprofen, and furosemide (Lasix) as medications known to increase the risk for hearing change related to ototoxicity and hearing problems.

300

The nurse is teaching a client about visual changes that occur with age. Which statement does the nurse include?

A.   “It may take your eyes longer to adjust  in  a darkened room.”

B.   “Most visual changes occur before age 40.”

C.   “When the sclera starts to turn yellow, this     means you might have problems with your liver.”

D.  “You probably will have to move reading       materials closer to your eyes.”

The nurse teaches the client that, “It may take your eyes longer to adjust in a dark room.” With increasing age, the iris has less ability to dilate, which leads to difficulty in adapting to dark environments.

300

Which systemic disorders may affect the eye and vision and require yearly eye examination by an ophthalmologist? (Select all that apply.)


A.   Anemia

B.  Diabetes mellitus

C.   Hepatitis

D.  Hypertension

E.   Multiple sclerosis (MS)

B, D, E

Clients who are diabetic are at risk for diabetic retinopathy and are in need of annual eye examinations. Clients with elevated blood pressure need to have annual eye examinations because of the increased risk for retinal damage. Clients with MS should have annual examinations because of changes that occur with the neurologic effects of MS that impact visual acuity.

300

The nurse is providing postmortem care to a client who will donate a cornea. Which action is appropriate for the nurse to implement?

A.   Apply a warm pack to the eyes.

B.   Elevate the lower extremities.

C.   Instill antibiotic drops into the eyes.

D.   Contact the recipient family.

C

Antibiotic eye drops, such as Neosporin (polymyxin B, neomycin, bacitracin) or tobramycin, is appropriate to instill into the corneal donor’s eyes to prevent infection.

300

The nurse is caring for a client who is admitted with mastoiditis. Which assessment data obtained by the nurse requires the most immediate action?

A.   The eardrum is red, thick-appearing, and  immobile.

B.  The lymph nodes are swollen and painful to touch.

C.   The client reports a headache and a stiff neck.

D.   The client’s oral temperature is 100.1° F (37.8° C).

C

The most immediate action is required when the client reports a headache and a stiff neck. These complaints may indicate meningitis, which is a serious illness requiring further assessment and immediate intervention.

300

An older adult client reports nausea during irrigation of the ear canal to remove impacted cerumen. What does the nurse do next?

A.  Administer an antiemetic.

B.   Call the health care provider.

C.   Stop irrigation immediately.

D.   Use less water to irrigate.

C

If nausea, vomiting, or dizziness develops in the client, the nurse needs to next stop the irrigation immediately. The client’s nausea may be a sign of vertigo.

Antiemetics would not be administered immediately in this case. The client’s nausea may be a symptom of vertigo, and further assessment is required first. The health care provider would not be notified before further assessment of the client is done by the nurse. Using less water will not alleviate the client’s nausea.

400

Which proper technique does the nurse use for eye drop instillation?

A.   Instilling the drops into the inner canthus

B.   Opening the eye by raising the upper eyelid

C.    Placing the eye drop in the lower lid pocket

D.   Touching the bottle tip to the eyeball

C

To instill eye drops, the lower eyelid is gently pulled down against the cheek to form a pocket, and the medication is instilled.

400

Which eye procedure requires informed consent from the client?

A.  Eye drop instillation

B.  Fluorescein angiography

C.  Ophthalmoscopy

D.  Snellen test

B

Fluorescein angiography is an invasive test and requires informed consent from the client.

400

A client with glaucoma is being assessed for new symptoms. Which symptom indicates a high priority need for reassessment of intraocular pressure?

A.  Burning in the eye

B.   Inability to differentiate colors

C.   Increased sensitivity to light

D.  Gradual vision changes

D

Gradual vision changes are an indication of increased intraocular pressure and indicate a high priority for reassessment.

400

Which type of drug therapy does the nurse anticipate giving to a client with Ménière’s disease to decrease endolymph volume?

A.   Antihistamines

B.   Antipyretics

C.   Diuretics

D.   Nicotinic acid

C

Mild diuretics are prescribed to decrease endolymph volume. Ménière’s disease causes an excess of endolymphatic fluid that distorts the entire inner-canal system. This distortion decreases hearing by dilating the cochlear duct, causes vertigo because of damage to the vestibular system, and stimulates tinnitus

400

Which type of hearing loss is most likely to be reversible when treated appropriately?

A.  Conductive hearing loss

B.   Sensorineural hearing loss

C.   Mixed conductive–sensorineural hearing loss

D.   Central hearing loss

A

Conductive hearing loss is most likely to be reversible when treated appropriately. This type of hearing loss is often the result of an obstruction in the ear canal or a retracted or bulging tympanic membrane.

500

Clients with a family history of which eye disorder may have problems with increased intraocular pressure (IOP), requiring additional assessment?

A.   Anisocoria

B.   Presbyopia

C.   Diabetic retinopathy

D.   Glaucoma

D

Glaucoma can be caused by increased IOP, which reduces blood flow to the eyes. Adults with a family history of glaucoma should have their IOP measured once or twice a year.

500

A client who is using eye drops in both eyes develops a viral infection in one eye and asks the nurse what to do. What is the nurse’s best response?

A.   “As long as you don’t touch the eyes with the dropper, it will be OK.”

B.   “Just wash your hands between eyes and put drops in the uninfected eye first.”

C.   “The other eye will probably get infected anyway.”

D.   “You will need to use a separate bottle of drops for each eye.”

D

The best response is that the client will need a separate bottle of eye drops for each eye. Because of the risk of transmitting the infection to the uninfected eye, clients would receive two bottles of drops labeled “right” and “left” to use in the correct eyes.

500

Which client is most in need of immediate examination by an ophthalmologist?

A.  A 58-year-old with glasses who reports an inability to see colors well and is feeling as though the glasses are always smudged 

B.  40-year-old with glasses and a reddened sclera who reports brow pain, headache, and seeing colored halos around lights

C.  A 76-year-old with seborrhea of the eyebrows and eyelids who reports burning and itching of the eyes

D.   A 39-year-old with contacts who reports an inability to tolerate bright lights and has visible purulent drainage on eyelids and eyelashes

B

The 40-year-old client with glasses and a reddened sclera who reports brow pain, headache, and seeing colored halos around lights is most in need of an ophthalmologic examination. This client is exhibiting signs and symptoms of increased intraocular pressure (IOP). This is a priority because the optic nerve can be damaged, which can cause possible blindness. Acute angle-closure glaucoma can occur in people 40 years of age and older.

500

An older adult client reports ear pain. Otoscopic examination for otitis media by the nurse practitioner (NP) reveals a dull and retracted membrane. What does the NP do next?

A.  Continues further assessment

B.   Irrigates the ear

C.   Prescribes antibiotics for probable otitis media

D.  Tests hearing acuity

A

The NP needs to perform further assessments. A dull and retracted membrane is not the only indication of otitis media for the older adult client. This finding may be a normal age-related change.

500

The nurse has just received change-of-shift report about these clients. Which client needs to be assessed first?

A.  Client with Ménière’s disease who is reporting severe nausea and is requesting an antiemetic

B.   Client who has had removal of an acoustic neuroma and has complete hearing loss on the surgical side

C.   Client with labyrinthitis who has a temperature of 102.4° F (39.1° C) and a headache

D.   Client who has acute otitis media and is reporting drainage from the affected ear

C

The client with an elevated temperature and headache with labyrinthitis must be assessed first. This may indicate that the client has developed meningitis requiring immediate intervention.