Resource Management
Project Work Planning
Contracts
Project Execution
Project Quality Control
100
Per the AIA B-101 which engineer does the architect typically engage with as a part of the basic services
a. Structural, MEP FP, Civil
b. Structural, Mechanical, Electrical
c. Structural, Plumbing, Electrical,
d. Structural, Mechanical, Electrical, Plumbing, Civil
b. Structural, Mechanical, Electrical
100
Which of the following is the primary purpose of a project work plan?
a.) To allocate resources and assign tasks
b. ) To establish the terms and conditions of contracts
c. ) To manage daily construction activities and ensure quality control
d. ) To define the scope, schedule, and budget of the project
d. ) To define the scope, schedule, and budget of the project
100
What is the term for when a professional is required to use a degree of attentiveness, caution and prudence that a reasonable person in the circumstances would exercise?
a.) Sole Proprietorship
b. ) Standard of Care
c.) Corporation
d. ) Standard of Architect Care
b. ) Standard of Care
100
During construction, a change in code interpretation requires an alteration to the stairwell design. Which document should the architect prepare to formalize this change?
a.) Construction Change Directive (CCD).
b.) Request for Information (RFI).
c.) Field Observation Report (FOR).
d.) Change Order.
d.) Change Order.
100
Which of the following strategies is most effective for improving quality control during the design documentation phase?
a) Limiting the number of team members working on drawings
b) Scheduling regular peer reviews and redline sessions
c) Allowing junior staff to take full ownership of document production
d) Submitting documents to the contractor for early feedback
b) Scheduling regular peer reviews and redline sessions
200
A project manager is preparing the staffing plan for an upcoming sustainable office building project. Which of the following is the BEST first step in developing a staffing plan according to industry best practices?
A. Assign all available staff to the project to ensure no resource shortages.
B. Identify the specific tasks and skill sets required for each phase of the project.
C. Draft a preliminary project budget before considering staff needs
D. Contact external recruiting agencies to negotiate rates.
B. Identify the specific tasks and skill sets required for each phase of the project.
200
During schematic design, the project team wants to establish a realistic project schedule. Which document provides the MOST accurate basis for time estimating?
a.) A generic scheduling template from a previous project.
b.) The client’s requested completion date.
c.)Historic production rates and task durations from similar past projects.
d.) The architect’s personal memory of past project timelines.
c.)Historic production rates and task durations from similar past projects.
200
What is AIA Document A-701?
a. Sole Proprietorship
b. Change Orders Form
c. Instructions to Bidders
d. Partnership
c. Instructions to Bidders
200
Which of the following actions is the architect not responsible for during project execution?
a) Reviewing shop drawings for compliance
b) Conducting code enforcement inspections
c) Issuing field reports during site visits
d) Evaluating applications for payment
b) Conducting code enforcement inspections
200
During a drawing review, the project architect catches a dimension error that could affect egress clearance. Which QA/QC tool is MOST effective to prevent this type of error in future projects?
a.) Conducting an informal peer review at the end of the project.
b.) Referencing applicable codes and developing a design checklist that includes critical code dimensions for egress.
c.) Relying on the contractor to catch such errors during construction.
d.) Removing dimension lines from preliminary drawings to avoid confusion.
b.) Referencing applicable codes and developing a design checklist that includes critical code dimensions for egress.
300
Which of the following tools is most effective for managing an architectural project with a new and less experienced team?
a. Gantt Chart
b. Excel Chart
c. Task Management Software
d. Critical Path Method (CPM)
c. Task Management Software
300
In a practice that uses the Critical Path Method (CPM), the “float” time of an activity refers to:
a.) The time before an activity’s start during which it can be delayed without affecting the project finish date.
b.) The time it takes for resources to mobilize on site.
c.) The overhead time added to each task for unplanned events.
d.) The total duration of all tasks on the critical path.
a.) The time before an activity’s start during which it can be delayed without affecting the project finish date.
300
Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of an addendum during the bidding process?
a.) To provide clarification, additional information, or modifications to bidding documents before bids are due.
b.) To negotiate final contract terms after bids have been submitted.
c.) To serve as a preliminary guarantee of performance from the contractor.
d.) To document the final payment procedures.
a.) To provide clarification, additional information, or modifications to bidding documents before bids are due.
300
What is the most effective way for an architect to manage professional liability risk during the Construction Administration phase
a.) Avoid attending site visits to minimize exposure
b.) Provide shop drawing reviews and document field observations clearly
c.) Delegate all client communications to the contractor
d.) Issue verbal change directives to the contractor as needed
b.) Provide shop drawing reviews and document field observations clearly
300
Which of the following BEST distinguishes between Quality Assurance (QA) and Quality Control (QC)?
a.) QA is performed by the contractor; QC is performed by the architect.
b.) QA involves proactive planning to prevent defects; QC is reactive and involves identifying and correcting defects during production.
c.) QA is concerned with aesthetics; QC is concerned with structural integrity.
d.) QA and QC are interchangeable terms with no practical difference.
b.) QA involves proactive planning to prevent defects; QC is reactive and involves identifying and correcting defects during production.
400
An architectural firm has a flat-billing structure but finds that certain staff members are consistently overutilized while others are underutilized. Which metric is MOST useful to quantify staff utilization?
a.) Gross Profit Margin (GPM).
b.) Direct Labor Multiplier (DLM).
c.) Billable Hours Percentage.
d.) Indirect Expense Ratio (IER).
c.) Billable Hours Percentage.
400
Which of the following project delivery methods offers the architect the least control over the construction timeline and contractor selection?
a.) Design-Bid-Build
b.) Design-Build
c.) Construction Manager as Advisor (CMa)
d.) Integrated Project Delivery (IPD)
b.) Design-Build
400
Which of the following is classified as an Additional Service under AIA B101, unless specifically included in the agreement?
a.) Schematic Design
b.) Review of contractor’s submittals
c.) LEED or sustainability certification documentation
d.) Coordination with structural and MEP consultants
c.) LEED or sustainability certification documentation
400
During the Design Development and Construction Documentation phases, what is the architect’s primary responsibility from a project management perspective?
a.) Ensure that all design decisions are made solely by the client to expedite approvals.
b.) Focus exclusively on aesthetic enhancements to strengthen the architectural vision.
c.) Coordinate consultants, maintain schedule and budget alignment, and ensure design intent is accurately documented.
d.) Delegate project oversight to the contractor to streamline the construction process.
c.) Coordinate consultants, maintain schedule and budget alignment, and ensure design intent is accurately documented.
400
What type of drawings are wall mounted exit sign typically tagged on?
a. ) Life Safety Plan
b.) Reflected Ceiling Plan
c.) Both a and b
d). Answer b only
c.) Both a and b
500
If the client requests significant changes after Construction Documents are complete, what is the architect’s best course of action?
a.) Make all changes immediately to satisfy the client
b.) Ignore the request to stay on schedule
c.) Submit a proposal for additional services, outlining scope, fees, and schedule impacts
d.) Ask the contractor to handle the changes directly
c.) Submit a proposal for additional services, outlining scope, fees, and schedule impacts
500
While drafting a project scope statement, the architect realizes that certain client requirements are ambiguous. What is the MOST appropriate action?
a.) Document the ambiguity in the scope statement and proceed, assuming clarification will come later.
b.) Schedule a scope clarification meeting with the client and all key stakeholders before finalizing the scope.
c.) Exclude the ambiguous items from the scope statement entirely.
d.). Add a 10% contingency to the budget to account for potential unknowns.
b.) Schedule a scope clarification meeting with the client and all key stakeholders before finalizing the scope.
500
According to AIA Document B101, which of the following services is considered part of the architect’s Basic Services?
a.) Preparing detailed cost estimates for construction
b.) Providing full-time site supervision during construction
c.) Assisting the owner in bidding or negotiating proposals from contractors
d.) Conducting energy modeling and sustainability analysis beyond code requirements.
c.) Assisting the owner in bidding or negotiating proposals from contractors
500
Which of the following scenarios REQUIRES the architect to issue a stop-work directive?
a.) Minor discrepancy in paint color selection.
b.) Identification of a structural framing detail that fails to meet code, presenting an imminent safety hazard.
c.) Contractor’s failure to submit daily logs.
d.) Observing that landscaping work is a day behind schedule.
b.) Identification of a structural framing detail that fails to meet code, presenting an imminent safety hazard.
500
According to the IBC, what is the maximum vertical rise allowed for a single ramp run?
a. ) 24 inches
b.) 30 inches
c. ) 36 inches
d.) 48 inches
b.) 30 inches