The EMT certification exam is designed to:
a) rank EMTs based on performance on the certification exam.
b) identify those EMTs who are prepared for advanced levels of training.
c) provide EMTs with the best possible wage once certification is achieved.
d) ensure that EMTs are competent and have the same level of knowledge and skills
d) ensure that EMTs are competent and have the same level of knowledge and skills
100
After establishing that an adult patient is unresponsive, you should:
a) manually open the airway
b) assess for breathing and a pulse
c) immediately begin chest compresssions
d) apply the AED and deliver a shock, if needed
What is
b) assess for breathing and a pulse
100
An effective team leader should:
a) command his/her team
b) help the team accomplish goals
c) perform all difficult interventions
d) refrain from any direct patient care
What is
b) help the team accomplish goals
100
The disruption of a joint in which the bone ends are no longer in contact is called a:
a) strain
b) sprain
c) fracture
d) dislocation
What is
d) dislocation
100
Which of the following scenarios is an example of informed consent:
a) a patient advises and EMT of why he or she is refusing
care
b) an EMT advises a patient of the risks of receiving
treatment
c) an EMT initiates immediate care for an unconscious
adult
d) a patient is advised by an EMT of the risks of refusing
care
What is
b) an EMT advises a patient of the risks of receiving
treatment
200
All information recorded on the PCR must be:
a) typewritten or printed
b) considered confidential
c) a matter of public record
d) reflective of your opinion
What is
b) considered confidential
200
A area of swelling or enlargement in a weakened arterial wall is called:
a) a thrombus
b) an aneurysm
c) an embolism
d) atherosclerosis
What is
b) an aneurysm
200
When a patient experiences a severe spinal injury, he or she:
a) will likely be paralyzed from the neck down
b) may lose sensation below the level of the injury
c) most commonly has a palpable spinal deformity
d) often loses motor function on one side of the body
What is
b) may lose sensation below the level of the injury
200
After a baby is born, it is import to:
a) ensure that it is thoroughly dried and warmed
b) position it so that its head is higher than its body
c) cool the infant to stimulate effective breathing
d) immediately clamp and cut the umbilical cord
What is
a) ensure that it is thoroughly dried and warmed
200
Infants are often referred to as "belly breathers" because:
a) their rib cage is less rigid and the ribs sit horizontally
b) an infant's ribs are brittle and are less able to expand
c) their intercostal muscles are not functional
d) their diaphragm does not receive impulses from the brain
a) their rib cage is less rigid and the ribs sit horizontally
300
Which of the following is an example of a functional behavioral disorder?
a) head trauma
b) Drug addiction
c) Schizophrenia
d) Alzheimer disease
c) Schizophrenia
300
In contrast to hypoglycemia, hyperglycemia:
a) is rapidly reversible if oral glucose is given
b) commonly results in excess water retention
c) can only be corrected in the hospital setting
d) is a rapidly developing metabolic disturbance
What is
c) can only be corrected in the hospital setting
300
Common signs of a skull fracture include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) mastoid process bruising
b) ecchymosis around the eyes
c) noted deformity to the skull
d) superficial scalp lacerations
What is
d) superficial scalp lacerations
300
The MOST ominous sign of impending cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is:
a) pallor
b) retractions
c) nasal flaring
d) bradycardia
What is
d) bradycardia
300
External bleeding from an extremity can usually be controlled initially by:
a) applying direct pressure
b) elevating the extremity
c) applying a tourniquet
d) applying chemical ice packs
What is
a) applying direct pressure
400
What is the MOST common cause of airway obstruction in
an unconscious patient:
a) vomitus
b) the tongue
c) blood clots
d) aspirated fluid
What is
b) the tongue
400
Which of the following is an example of a functional behavioral disorder:
a) head trauma
b) drug addiction
c) schizophrenia
d) Alzheimer disease
What is
c) schizophrenia
400
Subcutaneous emphysema is an indication that:
a) at least half of one lung has completely collapsed
b) your patient is experiencing a pericardial tamponade
c) air is escaping into the chest wall from a damaged
lung
d) blood is slowly accumulating within the tissue of the lung
What is
c) air is escaping into the chest wall from a damaged
lung
400
If you could only take two pieces of equipment with you to a patient's side, in addition to the jump kit, you should chose the:
a) AED and portable suction unit
b) BVM and portable oxygen
c) cervical collar and long backboard
d) oral airways and sterile dressings
What is
a) AED and portable suction unit
400
What is the alveolar minute volume of a patient with a tidal volume of 500 mL, a dead space volume of 150 mL, and a respiratory rate of 16 breath/min:
a) 5,600 mL
b) 6,000 mL
c) 7,400 mL
d) 8,000 mL
What is
a) 5,600 mL
500
In infants and children, a capillary refill time (CRT) that is greater than _____ second (s) is a sign of poor peripheral
perfusion:
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
What is
b) 2
500
External bleeding from a vein is relatively easy to control because:
a) veins carry deoxygenated blood
b) veins hold smaller blood volume
c) veins are under a lower pressure
d) blood typically oozes form a vein
What is
c) veins are under a lower pressure
500
Hemoptysis is defined as:
a) vomiting blood
b) coughing up blood
c) abnormal blood clotting
d) blood in the pleural space
What is
b) coughing up blood
500
When faced with a situation in which a patient is in cardiac arrest and a valid living will or DNR order cannot be located, you should:
a) begin resuscitation at once
b) contact medical control first
c) determine the patient's illness
d) notify the coroner immediately
What is
a) begin resuscitation at once
500
Common signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction include all of the following, EXCEPT:
a) abdominal cramps
b) drying of the eyes
c) flushing of the skin
d) persistent dry cough