CPR
Which of the following occurrences should always result in pausing multiple rescuer CPR?
A) The AED is turned on, properly attached and is ready to analyze
B) A fresh rescuer with the AED and other equipment arrives at the scene
C) The guest receiving care briefly gasps and then stops without any other actions
D) The rescuer performing compressions asks to switch with another rescuer as he completes the last compression.
A) The AED is turned on, properly attached and is ready to analyze
Which are the following are primary lifeguard responsibilities?
A) Counting the number of guests in the water and checking pool chemicals
B) Prevent aquatic emergencies and maintaining skills at at "test-ready' level
C) Answering guest questions and assisting guests to find the answers they are looking for
D) Cleaning the deck following and emergency and restocking the trauma bag.
B) Prevent aquatic emergencies and maintaining skills at at "test-ready' level
Which of the following common lifeguard hand signals and meanings is accurate?
A) Tapping your hand=bottom is all clear
B) Thumbs up= cover my zone
C) Raised first= stop dispatch
D) Crossed arms = stop dispatch
D) Crossed arms = stop dispatch
Which rescue would you use for a responsive child on the surface, in shallow water that is below your waist?
A) Grab and Lift
B) Rear Hug
C) Duck Pluck
D) Submerged
A) Grab and Lift
For a sprained wrist, which of the following mnemonics describe the basic care you provide to the guest?
A) DUMP
B) WOUND
C) RICE
D) SAMPLE
C) RICE
When helping a responsive in-water guest with a suspected spinal injury, why is on-going communication with the guest important?
A) On-going communication will help reassure and calm the guest throughout the process
B) The guest can provide information about what happened, pain location and level, additional injuries and other data
C) If the guest is talking to you, it means the guest is responsive, has a pulse, and is breathing. If this changes, adjust care accordingly.
D) All the above
D) All the above
What position should adjust an infants head to achieve an open airway?
A) Adjust the head back about 20 degrees
B) Adjust as needed so that the head is in the neutral position
C) Adjust the head so that the chin is at least 1 inch higher than the nose
D) Adjust as needed backwards as you place the mask on the face
B) Adjust as needed so that the head is in the neutral position
Which of the following describes a CPR performance error that lifeguards should avoid?
A) Needing to pause CPR for 5-10 seconds to address something that may impact care
B) Leaning on the chest between chest compressions
C) Arms and back straight, pivoting the hip
D)The person receiving compressions is at knee level with the compressor
B) Leaning on the chest between chest compressions
What is the primary objective of 10/20 protection?
A) To contribute to the lifeguard's overall professional image to guests at the facility
B) A scanning strategy that makes lifeguards move attentive to what is happening everywhere at the facility
C) The prompt recognition of and rendering aid to, an in-water GID by a vigilant lifeguard
D) Infants and children must be rescued in 10 seconds or less and adults in 20 seconds or less
C) The prompt recognition of and rendering aid to, an in-water GID by a vigilant lifeguard
Which of the following actions most likely indicates a guest that may be in distress, prompting you to respond?
A) Pushing off the wall, active bobbling while reaching out & returning to the wall, repeating this over and over
B) Briefly swimming away from, then returning to an inner tube while talking to a friend, repeating over about 1 min
C) Active arm movement, little leg movement, with head back, hair in face, eyes wide open, occasionally submerging, no forward progress
D) Regularly going under water followed by briefly standing in 3 feet of water over several minutes
C) Active arm movement, little leg movement, with head back, hair in face, eyes wide open, occasionally submerging, no forward progress
The most appropriate rescue for a responsive adult, who is on the surface and facing away from you- would be?
A) The Front Hug
B) The Rear Hug
C) The Duck Pluck
D) Grab and Lift
B) The Rear Hug
Which of the follow guest may need supplemental oxygen with a non-rebreather mask?
A) An unresponsive guest with strong pulse but is not breathing normally
B) A responsive guest who says they are having an asthma attack and needs their inhaler
C) A responsive guest with slow and labored breathing, bluish lips, blue-gray fingers and cold skin
D) A responsive guest who is dehydrated and suffering from a bad sunburn
C) A responsive guest with slow and labored breathing, bluish lips, blue-gray fingers and cold skin
Which actions are appropriate when caring for a guest standing in ankle deep water with a possible spinal injury?
A) Activate the EAP/Call EMS and apply SMR by the guest lay down and then apply the Underarm Vise Grip SMR hold
B) Activate the EAP/ Call EMS and apply SMR walking forward and slowly rolling the guest face up to the Underarm Vise Grip position
C) Activate the EAP/ Call EMS and apply SMR by having the guest lay down and use the Squeeze Play SMR hold
D) Activate the EAP/Call EMS and apply SMR by placing your hands on the side of the guest's head and holding the head still
D) Activate the EAP/Call EMS and apply SMR by placing your hands on the side of the guest's head and holding the head still
If your first ventilation does not result in the chest to rise within 1 second, what should you do next?
A) Give 30 chest compressions, check in the mouth and then attempt a second ventilation
B) Press the mask tighter to the face avoid leakage
C) Remove and quickly check the mask, then reposition the mask, re-tilt, re-seal and attempt second ventilation
D) Remove the mask and check the mouth, performing a finger sweep only if you see an object, then attempt a second ventilation
C) Remove and quickly check the mask, then reposition the mask, re-tilt, re-seal and attempt second ventilation
How do you perform single rescuer CPR on an infant?
A) 1-2 fingers at the center of the chest, performing 15 compressions, at 1/2 depth of the chest, followed by 2 breaths
B) 2 hands at the center of the chest, performing 30 compressions, at 1/2 depth of the chest, followed by 2 breaths
C) 1 hand at the center of the chest, performing 30 compressions, at 1/3 depth of the chest, followed by 2 breaths
D) 2 thumbs at the center of the chest, performing 15 compressions, at 1/3 depth, followed by 2 breaths
C) 1 hand at the center of the chest, performing 30 compressions, at 1/3 depth of the chest, followed by 2 breaths
What are the primary objectives of a safe lifeguard rotation?
A) Assume/relinquish responsibility for zone and make sure each lifeguard has their own rescue tube, at start of rotation
B) Assume/relinquish responsibility for zone and avoid any communication between lifeguards until the rotation is completed
C) Assume/relinquish responsibility for zone without reducing overall attentiveness and the outgoing lifeguard completes a profound bottom if there are guests in the water, after relinquishing responsibility.
D) Assume/relinquish responsibility for zone with our reducing overall attentiveness and the performance of a profound bottom scan by the incoming lifeguard before assuming responsibility and then the outgoing lifeguard after relinquishing responsibility.
D) Assume/relinquish responsibility for zone with our reducing overall attentiveness and the performance of a profound bottom scan by the incoming lifeguard before assuming responsibility and then the outgoing lifeguard after relinquishing responsibility.
Before approaching and rescuing a GID, which of the following should have already occurred?
A) Activation of the EAP, removing the rescue tube, and then safe entry into the water
B) Activation of the EAP, clearing guests from the water, using the correct whistle code while pointing and then safe entry into the water
C) Activation of the EAP and then safe entry into the water
D) Activation of the EAP, using hand signals to get another lifeguard to cover the zone and then safe entry into the water
C) Activation of the EAP and then safe entry into the water
When would you most likely perform a Front Hug Rescue over a Front Drive rescue?
A) To rescue a small responsive guest, such as a child, on the surface, facing you
B) To rescue a small responsive guest, such as a child, on the surface, facing away from you
C) To rescue a large responsive guest, such as an a adult, on the surface, facing you
D) To rescue a large responsive guest, such as an adult, on the surface, facing away from you
A) To rescue a small responsive guest, such as a child, on the surface, facing you
Under what circumstances should a tourniquet be considered?
A) Guest with catastrophic wound to a limb with bleeding that cannot be controlled
B) Guest with puncture wound to limb and bleeding is controlled
C) When a guest suffers head injury
D) When a guest has a minor shoulder wound with controlled bleeding
A) Guest with catastrophic wound to a limb with bleeding that cannot be controlled
What is the Underarm Vise Grip and when is it appropriate to use?
A) A SMR hold used to stabilize an in-water responsive guest with a suspected spinal injury
B) A SMR hold only used to stabilize responsive guests with a suspected spinal injury who found standing or sitting
C) A SMR hold used to specifically allow smooth placement of a responsive guest with a suspected spinal injury, on to the backboard
D) A SMR hold used on guests already positioned onto the backboard to allow placement to allow placement of the head immobilizer
C) A SMR hold used to specifically allow smooth placement of a responsive guest with a suspected spinal injury, on to the backboard
Which of the following guest actions would cause you to begin hands on responsive FBAO care procedures INSTEAD OF another care response?
A) The guest stops coughing, turn pale and begins to vomit, he tells you that he has severe stomach pain
B) The guest stops coughing and cannot speak, cry or make any other sound, all while grasping his throat
C) The guest starts speaking loudly in short sentences and between coughs saying "I think I'm choking"
D) The guest stops coughing and then collapses in front of you, and is now motionless on the ground
B) The guest stops coughing and cannot speak, cry or make any other sound, all while grasping his throat
When would it be appropriate for you to begin CPR on an unresponsive guest of any age?
A) Immediately after checking responsiveness for 10 seconds, calling for an AED, and getting assistance from other lifeguards.
B) Immediately after returning to the unresponsive guest's side with the AED and other lifeguards.
C) After removing an unresponsive guest from the water who is not breathing and starts to vomit.
D) After taking 10 seconds to perform the Primary Check- not finding signs of breathing but you are unsure if the pulse was felt.
In which of the following situations would it NOT be necessary to activate your EAP before responding?
A) You are responding to a child struggling in the water during a swimming lesson
B) You are responding to an active drowning in the wave pool
C) You are responding from an in-water station to a guest needing help exiting the attraction
D) You are responding to an adult in 1 foot of water who slipped and fell backwards into a water feature
C) You are responding from an in-water station to a guest needing help exiting the attraction
How should you start to D.E.A.L with a dissatisfied guest?
A) Detect when the guest is lying or making excuses when their children are not following the rules.
B) Dip quickly get away from rude guests and get a supervisor to handle them
C) Direct guest to the written rules they broke and then politely asking these guests to leave
D) De-escalate the situation before evaluating alternatives
D) De-escalate the situation before evaluating alternatives
When would you use the duck pluck rescue?
A) When the GID is located below the surface but still within reach
B) When the GID is located below the surface but out of reach
C) When the GID is located at the surface in 10ft
D) When the GID is located at least 6 feet below the water's surface
A) When the GID is located below the surface but still within reach
Which of the following lists some signs that may indicate a guest is experiencing hypoxia?
A) Extensive rash, swelling and red lips
B) Breathing that is weak, labored and blue lips
C) Fast heart rate combined with a fruity breath odor
D) Hunger, thirst, and heavy sweating
B) Breathing that is weak, labored and blue lips
When is appropriate to perform in-water rescue breathing on an unresponsive guest, who is not breathing?
A) In-water rescue breathing should begin immediately after confirming the guest is not breathing
B) In-water rescue breathing should only be performed if the in-water lifeguard reaches the extrication point with the unresponsive guest, before on-deck lifeguards are ready to proceed with rapid extraction
C) In-water rescue breathing should be performed as soon as the in-water lifeguard places the unresponsive guest face up on the rescue tube
D) In-water rescue breathing should be performed as soon as the in-water lifeguard reaches the extraction point with the unresponsive guest
B) In-water rescue breathing should only be performed if the in-water lifeguard reaches the extrication point with the unresponsive guest, before on-deck lifeguards are ready to proceed with rapid extraction
How should you provide care for a responsive infant with a severe airway obstruction?
A) Standing: Give 5 chest thrusts using 1 hand on the lowest part of the sternum
B) Sitting: Give 5 back blows on the lower back followed by 5 chest thrusts using 1 hand at the center of the chest
C) Standing: Give 5 chest thrusts using 1 hand at the center of the chest then attempt 2 breaths
D) Sitting: Give 5 back blows between the shoulder blades followed by 5 chest thrusts using 1 hand at the center of the chest
D) Sitting: Give 5 back blows between the shoulder blades followed by 5 chest thrusts using 1 hand at the center of the chest
Which of the following statements concerning a lifeguard performing single rescuer CPR on a 6 year old is true?
A) Begin CPR with two breaths followed by 30 chest compressions and then two breaths.
B) Begin CPR with two hands at the center of the chest delivering 30 chest compressions and then two breaths.
C) Delay CPR until additional rescuers arrive with the AED and then perform 30 compressions followed by two breaths.
D) Begin CPR with two thumbs at the center of the chest delivering 30 chest compressions and then two breaths.
B) Begin CPR with two hands at the center of the chest delivering 30 chest compressions and then two breaths
When working outside, which strategies will provide you with the most protection from all sun's effects?
A) Always wearing polarized sunglasses and applying sunscreen at the start of your shift (never skipping)
B) Drinking water and applying sunscreen regularly throughout the day
C) Wearing protective clothing (hat or visor), wearing suntan lotion, and only lifeguard in shaded areas
D) Wearing polarized sunglasses, applying sunscreen throughout the day, staying hydrated, using shade when possible and wearing protective clothing, including hat or visor
D) Wearing polarized sunglasses, applying sunscreen throughout the day, staying hydrated, using shade when possible and wearing protective clothing, including hat or visor
When should a secondary check be performed on a guest?
A) Immediately before providing rescue breathing or CPR to determine which care the guest needs
B) During any stoppage of CPR or rescue breathing care if guest is still unresponsive to determine what care may be needed
C) Only after the AED prompts to deliver a shock since this will restart the heart
D) Only if there are no life-threatening conditions found during the Primary Check or once normal breathing is restored
D) Only if there are no life-threatening conditions found during the Primary Check or once normal breathing is restored
After positioning an in-water unresponsive guest face up on your rescue tube, what should you do next?
A) While moving towards extraction point, open the airway to quickly check for spontaneous signs of breathing
B) While moving towards extraction point, open the airway and quickly check for a pulse for up to 10 seconds
C) While moving towards extraction point, open the airway, and begin rescue breathing
D) While moving towards extraction point, communicate with the guest
A) While moving towards extraction point, open the airway to quickly check for spontaneous signs of breathing
A) A rigid, soft or anatomic splint depending on location
B) A pressure bandage
C) A backboard
D) Hemostatic gauze
A) A rigid, soft or anatomic splint depending on location
At what flow rate should oxygen be delivered using a BVM during BLS care?
A) 15 liters per minute
B) 5 liters per minute
C) 2 liters per minute
D) 27 liters per minute
A) 15 liters per minute
How should you provide care for a responsive adult or child (over 1 year of age) with severe airway obstruction?
A) Give 5 back blows and then place the guest onto the ground and deliver 5 chest thrusts using 2 hands at the center of the chest, repeating each until the object is dislodged or the guest becomes unresponsive
B) Give 5 back blows followed by 5 abdominal thrusts, repeating each until the object is dislodged or the guest becomes unresponsive
C) Give 5 back blows and then encourage the guest to cough
D) Begin the Heimlich maneuver
B) Give 5 back blows followed by 5 abdominal thrusts, repeating each until the object is dislodged or the guest becomes unresponsive
An adult is not breathing and does not have a pulse, so you get positioned to begin CPR with placement of 2 hands at the center of the chest. Which of the following care sequences is the best option to follow next?
A) Perform 30 compressions, each 1-2 inches deep allowing the chest to fully recoil, at a rate of at least 120 compressions per minute
B) Perform 30 compressions, each 1-1.4 inches deep allowing the chest to fully recoil, at a rate of 100 compressions per minute.
C) Perform 15 compressions, each 1.5-2 inches deep allowing the chest to fully recoil, at a rate of 100 compressions per minute.
D) Perform 30 compressions, each 2-2.4 inches deep allowing the chest to fully recoil, at a rate of 100 compressions per minute.
Why are whistle codes and hand signals important to use at a facility?
A) To stop guests and other lifeguards from being annoying
B) To help distract you when scanning becomes difficult
C) To provide a basic means of quick staff and guest communication
D) To get your friend's attention along with anyone else you want to meet while on duty
C) To provide a basic means of quick staff and guest communication
While scanning, something appears in your zone below the water that was not there before; it is too blurry to tell what it is from your location. What should you do?
A) When you have time, call for a supervisor or ask an off duty lifeguard to investigate
B) Do not stop scanning the water if you are not sure what something is; investigate it during the next rotation
C) Get the attention of a guest in the water to check it out for you so you don't get wet
D) If you don't know go! Activate the EAP, safely enter the water and check it out
D) If you don't know go! Activate the EAP, safely enter the water and check it out
How do you check for signs of spontaneous breathing on an unresponsive guest in the water?
A) GID face up on the rescue tube (moving towards extraction point), open the airway, and quickly check for spontaneous signs of breathing
B) GID face up on backboard, open airway, quickly check for spontaneous signs of breathing
C) While holding the GID face up, open the airway, check for breathing for up to 10 seconds before moving towards stairs
D) GID face up on the rescue tube, open the airway, check for pulse and breathing for 10 seconds while moving towards extraction point
A) GID face up on the rescue tube (moving towards extraction point), open the airway, and quickly check for spontaneous signs of breathing
When caring for heat exhaustion, which of the listed care options would be inappropriate and dangerous if attempted?
A) Have the guest lie down with elevated legs while you actively cool the guest down
B) Carefully move the guest to a cool shaded area with access to fans
C) Provide water or an electrolyte drink if guest becomes unresponsive
D) Remove heavy clothing
C) Provide water or an electrolyte drink if guest becomes unresponsive
You are holding an in-water guest with a suspected spinal injury using the underarm vise grip SMR hold. What adjustments to your SMR hold will you need to perform to smoothly place the guest into position on the backboard, when the responding lifeguard team is ready?
A) Switch from the Underarm Vise Grip to the Overarm Vis Grip just prior to positioning and placement on to the backboard
B) Maintain SMR and rotate the guest's body, face down and then bring the guest into a face up position for placement on the backboard
C) Begin moving with the guest in wide circles to build momentum
D) Have another member of the lifeguard team perform the Squeeze Play
A) Switch from the Underarm Vise Grip to the Overarm Vis Grip just prior to positioning and placement on to the backboard
What are some examples of the many consequences of not paying careful attention when delivering ventilations to an unresponsive guest?
A) Poor mask seal cause an incomplete ventilation with little or no chest rise, which may be mistaken for an airway obstruction
B) Excessive air volume will increase internal pressure and reduce venal return to the heart, decreasing CPR effectiveness
C) An improperly opened airway or an airway that is not adequately maintained opened, may impede air flow, resulting in not seeing chest rise
D) All the above
D) All the above
While performing CPR, the guest vomits. The vomiting occurs just before you can provide two breaths. What should you do next?
A) Keep the guest face up & head in the neutral position, use a finger sweep to remove the vomit from the mouth and then reassess pulse and breathing since vomiting may indicate that the guest has been resuscitated.
B) Carefully roll the guest to one side and remove the vomit from the mouth using a finger sweep and/or a suction device and then resume CPR.
C) Never disrupt CPR for any reason- continue CPR until EMS arrives and takes over care.
D) Remove and examine the mask. If needed, clear the vomit from the mask and then resume CPR.
B) Carefully roll the guts to one side and remove the vomit from the mouth using a finger sweep and/or a suction device and then resume CPR.
Which of the following is necessary to safely perform a compact jump?
A) Jump into water with your legs together, knees bent and feet flat
B) Jump into the water like a cannonball, with knees up to your chest
C) Stride into the water, then kick your legs together
D) Jump into the water leaning backwards with your tube trailing behind
A) Jump into water with your legs together, knees bent and feet flat
In which of the following stages of drowning would a guest rarely need any further care if rescued promptly?
A) The respiratory arrest stage
B) The surprise stage
C) The unconscious stage
D) Hypoxic convulsions
B) The surprise stage
After rescuing an unresponsive guest, where should you position the rescue tube?
A) Centered, above the shoulder blades but below the beck causing the head to naturally stay in the neutral position
B) Centered, below the shoulder blades causing the head to naturally tilt back
C) Centered, under the guests head causing the head to stay above the water
D) Centered under the buttocks to lift the whole body out of the water
B) Centered, below the shoulder blades causing the head to naturally tilt back
If a responsive guest having anaphylactic reaction, which of the following devices may help?
A) Supplemental oxygen attached to BVM
B) Naloxone nasal spray
C) Epinephrine Auto Injector
D) Asthma inhaler
C) Epinephrine Auto Injector
When performing rescue breathing how do you determine if each ventilation was properly delivered?
A) Each delivered ventilation should result in visible color returning to the guests face
B) Each delivered ventilation should result in visible chest rise
C) Each delivered ventilation should result in visible stomach bloat
D) Each delivered ventilation should result in visible arm movement
B) Each delivered ventilation should result in visible chest rise