Exam 1
Exam 2
Exam 3
Exam 4
Radioisotopes
100

Which of the following are consequences of ionization of human cells?

A). Creation of unstable atoms
B). Injury to cell leading to abnormal and/or non-function
C). Production of low-energy x-ray photons
D). All of the above

D). All of the above

All of the previous answers are correct. There are additional effects including free electron production, creation of free radicals, and production of new biological material like peroxide in cells.

100

At what stage does DNA synthesis occurs at?

A). S Phase

B). Metaphase

C). Anaphase

D). Telophase

A). S Phase

DNA synthesis occurs at the S Phase. During this phase, the cell replicates the DNA creating 2 identical copies of each chromosome

100

Which tissues have immediate radiation consequences?

A. Muscle tissue, nervous tissue, and connective tissue

B. Bone marrow, reproductive organs, and skin

C. Intestines, lungs, and nervous tissue

D. Muscle tissue, skin, and adipose tissue

B. Bone marrow, reproductive organs, and skin

100

What is the annual effective dose limit for occupational radiation exposure for whole-body exposure?
A) 1 mSv
B) 5 mSv
C) 50 mSv
D) 100 mSv

C) 50 mSv

100

What is the Primary Method of radioactive decay for Iodine-125, that is used in prostate cancer treatments? 

a.) Alpha Decay 

b.) Positron Emission 

c.) Beta Decay 

d.) Electron Capture 

d.) Electron Capture 

encapsulated in titanium seeds for prostate therapy, undergoes electron capture. This is a process where an inner electron is absorbed by the nucleus.

200

What is the background equivalent radiation time?
(Based on annual U.S. population exposure)

A). 2 mSv
B). 5 mSv
C). 3 mSv
D). 8 mSv

C). 3 mSv

It's a comparison radiation amount received with that of natural background radiation. This value can be used and explained to justify safety of treatments to anxious patients.

200

Which strands are easier to repair?

A). Double strand break

B) Single strand break

C) Both A and B

D) None of these options

B). Single strand breaks

Repair enzymes are often capable of reversing the damage. Single strand breaks are easier compared to double strands due to single strand not having another chromosome to repair.

200

Which of the following are examples of early tissue reactions?

A. Inflammation, cancer, and nausea

B. Epilation, infertility, and bone marrow syndrome

C. Hematopoietic syndrome, gastrointestinal syndrome, and cerebrovascular syndrome

D. Nausea, epilation, and intestinal disorders

D. Nausea, epilation, and intestinal disorders

200

Which technique is best for reducing voluntary patient motion during a radiographic exam?
A) Increasing SID
B) Effective communication
C) Reducing mAs
D) Using a grid

B) Effective communication

200

Typical Radiation Does targeted to treat 90% of the prostate volume in Iodine-125 brachytherapy ?

a.) 100Gy 

b.) 145Gy

c.) 80Gy 

d.) 200G

b.) 145Gy

Treatment plan aims to deliver 145Gy to 90% of the prostate and to limit radiation dose to adjacent structures 

300

Which two listed below are forms of ionizing radiation?

A). X-Rays
B). Visible Light
C). Microwaves
D). Radio Waves
E). Gamma Rays
F.) Low-energy ultraviolet radiation

A). X-Rays and E). Gamma Rays

All of the previously listed types of radiation are on the electromagnetic spectrum, X-Rays and Gamma Rays are higher energy, higher frequency, and have a shorter wavelength. The other options are generally considered lower energy, lower frequency, and with a longer wavelength.

300

What is Apoptosis

A). When the cell undergoes repair

B). It is a cell that destroys foreign substances

C). Determines the cells function

D). The cell self-destructs when it is heavily damaged by radiation (Programmed cell-death)

D). The cell self-destructs when it is heavily damaged by radiation (Programmed cell-death)

300

What are the whole-body doses associated with hematopoietic syndrome, gastrointestinal syndrome, and cerebrovascular syndrome, respectively?

A. 1-10 Gy, 10-50 Gy, 50+ Gy

B. 10-20 Gy, 20-30 Gy, 30+ Gy

C. 3-4 Gy, 4-10 Gy, 10 Gy+

D. 25-50 Gy, 50-80 Gy, 80+ Gy

A. 1-10 Gy, 10-50 Gy, 50+ Gy

300

What is the most effective way for radiographers to reduce occupational exposure?
A) Wearing a lead apron
B) Increasing exposure time
C) Standing closer to the patient
D) Maximizing distance from the source

D) Maximizing distance from the source

300

Which Isotope is most commonly used in nuclear medicine due to its ability to be incorporated into various biological active substances ?

a.) Iodine-125 

b.) Molybdenum-99 

c.)Technetium-99m 

d.) Fluorine-18


c.) Technetium-99m

Derived from Molybdenum-99 and is extremely versatile because it can be adapted to imagine multiple organ systems, which can set it apart from more organ-specific isotopes 

400

Some combinations of Z protons and and neutrons can lead to the formation an unstable nucleus, which is called?

A). Nucleus
B). Radioisotope
C). Nuclei
D). Isotope

 B). Radioisotope

Radioisotopes are formed when a certain number of Z protons and neutrons combine to form an unstable radioactive isotope. This is as opposed to isotopes which are formed if two atoms have the same number of protons, but not neutrons. Isotopes can also be stable and are not radioactive, unlike radioisotopes.

400

What is the most likely early tissue reaction after exposure to 2–3 Gy of radiation?


A) Skin erythema
B) Cataracts
C) Sterility
D) Thyroid cancer

A) Skin erythema


This use to be a way to measure radiation dose but a more reliable unit was needed. A new unit was selected to be based on exact measurable effects of radiation.

400

Which of the following are true statements regarding radiation-induced chromosomal damage?

1. Can be caused by both low and high radiation doses.

2. Breaks and rearrangements can lead to mutations.

3. Metaphase is the stage of cell division in which chromosomal damage can be evaluated.

A. 1 and 2 only.

B. 1 and 3 only.

C. 2 and 3 only.

D All of the options.

D. All of the options.

400

What is the purpose of the genetically significant dose (GSD)?
A) To estimate fetal dose in pregnant patients
B) To track dose to gonads of all individuals
C) To estimate the potential genetic impact on future generations.
D) To determine the threshold for skin erythema

C) To estimate the potential genetic impact on future generations.

400

What particle annihilates which a positron to release two 511 keV photons in PET imaging? 

a.) Neutron

b.) Proton 

c.)Electron 

d.) Alpha Particle  


c.) electron 

in PET imaging, a positron emitted from an unstable nucleus interacts with an electron, resulting in annihilation. This releases two photons traveling in opposite directions, each having 511 keV 

500

What is the difference between absorption and scatter in regards to x-ray photons and patient interaction?

A). Absorbed give all energy and cease to exist, while Scattered only give some energy.
B). Scattered give all energy and cease to exist, while Absorbed only give some energy.
C). Both give all energy and cease to exist.
D). Both give all energy on interaction, but only Absorbed continue to exist.

A). Absorbed give all energy and cease to exist, while Scattered only give some energy.

X-ray photons that interact with patient atoms and give up all energy are known as absorbed, while scattered x-ray photons only gives up some of their energy as well as leaving the interaction at a different angle than the one that they initially entered the patient with.

500

What is the primary reason blood counts are not used to monitor occupational exposure?


A) Blood counts are difficult to measure.
B) Blood cells are resistant to radiation.
C) Blood changes are delayed and unreliable at low doses.
D) Radiation does not affect blood cells.

C) Blood changes are delayed and unreliable at low doses.


500

Which element is chemically similar to radium, causing it to be stored in the bones and in turn, increases long-term exposure risk?

A. Zinc

B. Iron

C. Calcium

D. Sodium

C. Calcium

500

Why is the control-booth barrier considered a secondary protective barrier?
A) It is not permanently installed
B) It protects against direct radiation
C) It is not located in the primary beam path
D) It must be operated manually during procedures

C) It is not located in the primary beam path

500

According to EPA guidelines, What is the maximum radiation dose for a person involved in non life saving activites during radiological emergencies? 

a.) 250 mSv 

b.) 100mSv 

c.) 50 mSv 

d.) 10 mSv 


c.) 50 mSv 

The EPA recommends a limit of 50 mSv for non life saving tasks and up to 250 mSv for life saving efforts.