Antihistamines & Decongestants
Antitussives, Expectorants and other Respiratory Drugs
Anti-Hypertensives & Anti-anginals
Anti-dysrhythmics & Heart Failure Drugs
Coagulation and Anti-lipemic Drugs
100

Antihistamines are called histamine antagonists for this reason. 

What is - drugs that compete with histamine for specific receptor sites. 

100

Name two non-opiod anti-tussives

What is - Dextromethorphan and Benzonatate

100
Name three adverse effects of taking adrenergic anti-hypertensive medications. 

What is - bradycardia with reflex tachycardia, postural/orthostatic hypotension, dry mouth, drowsiness, constipation and sexual dysfunction. 

100

Common side effect of the ACE inhibitor Lisinopril

What is - dry cough

100

Which of these needs laboratory monitoring with administration: Heparin or Enoxaparin? 

What is - Heparin needs monitoring, Enoxaparin does not.
200

A contraindication to using antihistamines. 

What is - an acute asthma attack, narrow-angle glaucoma, cardiac disease, kidney disease, hypertension, COPD, Peptic Ulcer Disease, BPH or Pregnancy.

200

Name three contraindications to giving an anti-tussive

What is - Hyperthyroidism, use of MAOIs within the past 14 days, COPD, Renal or Liver impairments and BPH. 

200

Name two angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors 

Captopril, Benazepril, Enalapril, Lisinopril, Ramipril, Quinapril, Perindopril, Fosinopril.

200
Symptoms of Digoxin toxicity

What is - Bradycardia, headache, dizziness, confusion, nausea and double vision (yellow halos around lights)

200

What is the black box warning for factor Xa inhibitors?

What is - not to use in patients with indwelling epidural catheters because it can cause spinal hematomas

300

This antihistamine acts centrally on CNS and has sedating effects

What is - Diphenhydramine/Benadryl

300

Name one short-acting and one long-acting beta adrenergic agonist medication. 

What is - Albuterol (Ventolin, Proair) or Levoalbuterol (Xopenex) for short-acting and Salmerterol (Serevent Diskus) or Fluticasone (Breo Ellipta) for long-acting.

300

Explain the mechanism of action of angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs) 

What is - block the binding of angiotensin II to type 1 angiotensin II receptors, blocks vasoconstriction and the secretion of aldosterone. 

300

List two class IV drugs used to treat dysrhythmias

What is - calcium channel blockers Verapamil and Dilitiazem
300

Which coagulation modifer medication should not be used in children or teenagers due to risk of Reye's syndrome

What is - Aspirin

400
Name the three groups of nasal decongestants.

What is - adrenergics (sympathomimetics), anticholinergics (parasympatholytics) and corticosteroids.

400

Name two adverse effects of anti-cholinergics. 

What is - dry mouth/throat, nasal congestion, heart palpitations, GI distress, urinary retention, intra-ocular pressure, headache, cough and anxiety.
400

Explain the mechanism of action of calcium channel blockers

What is - prevents calcium from entering heart and vascular smooth muscle cells which prevents muscle contraction and promotes relaxation. Arteries throughout the body dilate, increasing blood flow to the ischemic heart. 

400

List adverse effects of anti-dysrhythmic drug Procainamide

What is - Ventricular dysrhythmias, systemic lupus erythematosus, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fever, rash and torsades to pointes

400
List three adverse effects of HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors (Statins)
What is - abdominal pain, rash, headache, elevated liver enzymes, serious effect is myopathy which can progress to rhabdomyolysis.
500

Explain why nasal decongestants can cause rebound congestion. 

What is - due to rapid absorption of the medication through the mucous membranes can cause congestion/reduces effectiveness of the medicine and leads to overuse and dependence. 

500

Which type of respiratory drugs cause bronchodilation by increasing the levels of cAMP?

What are - Xanthines.

500
Explain priorities to teach a patient who has been switched from PO to transdermal Nitroglycerin. 

What is - Apply patch at same time each day, use only one patch at a time, clean residue off skin before applying new patch, avoid skinfolds, hairy areas or below knees or elbows for placing patches. Encourage rotation of sites to prevent irritation.

500

Explain the mechanism of action of beta blockers for heart failure patients.

What is - blocks sympathetic nervous system stimulation to the heart, prevents catecholamine-mediated actions on the heart, which results in reduced HR, delay in AV node conduction, reduced myocardial contractility and decreased myocardial automaticity.

500

Explain the mechanism of action of Ezetimibe (Zetia)

What is - selectively inhibits absorption of cholesterol and related sterols in the small intestine - resulting in reduction of total cholesterol, LDL and triglyceride levels.