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100

Which 2 DMT for MS can cause development of self-neutralizing antibodies

1. Natalizumab

2. Interferons (1b > 1a)

100

Whare the most common stiff person syndrome antibodies (name at least 2)

1. GAD65, amphiphysin, glycine receptor, DPPX

100

Describe how myopathic and chronic neurogenic changes on EMG affect the following: 

1. MUAP duration

2. MUAP amplitude

3. Recruitment

Myopathic: early/increased recruitment, low/small amplitude MUAP, short duration MUAP

Neuropathic: long duration MUAP, large amplitude MUAP, decreased recruitment

100

Which artery do most arteries to the thalamus arise from? Also, describe the artery that arises from a different artery

1. PCA

2. Tuberothalamic (Polar) - Arises from PCOM

100

Most common cavernous malformation genetic mutation 

1. KRIT1 (CCM1)

200

What is the mechanism of action of dalfampradine and 3,4 DAP and what conditions are they used for?

1. Potassium channel blocker (notably dalfampradine helps with demyelinated axons in particular)

2. MS & LEMS

200

What condition presents like lower motor neuron predominant motor neuron disease, but EMG reveals evidence of conduction blocks and what is its characteristic antibody

Multifocal motor neuropathy - Anti-GM1

200

Describes the total tau- p-tau, and beta 42 findings in CSF for Alzheimer's patient (elevated, decreased, normal)

elevated total tau, elevated p-tau, and decreased B 42

200

Differentiate the following: 

1. Capgras 

2. Cotard

3. Fregoli

  1. Capgras: Believing a familiar person has been replaced by an imposter

  2. Cotard: Denies existence of own body, believing it (or parts) is/are dead

  3. Fregoli: Thinking different people as being familiar people in disguise

200

What gene mutation relates theses 3 syndromes: 

1. Hemiplegic migraines

2. Genetic Epilepsy with Febrile Seizures + (GEFS)

3. Dravet Syndrome

SCN1A

300

Describe the MOA of the following medications used commonly in Parkinson's: 

1. Bromocriptine

2. Entacapone

3. Selegiline

4. Pimavanserin

5. Amantadine

  1. Bromocriptine: Dopamine agonist

  2. Entacapaone: COMT inhibitor

  3. Selegiline: MAO-B inhibitor

  4. Pimavanserin: 5HT2A receptor inverse agonist

  5. Amantadine: partial dopamine agonist and partial NMDA antagonist

300

Genes associated with dermatomyositis (name at least 2)

  1. Anti-TIF-1 gamma

  2. Anti-Mi-2

  3. Anti-MDA-5

300

Which HLA gene is associated with elevated SJS risk with carbamazepine

HLA-B*1502

300

List the parts of the carotid artery starting proximal to distal

Cervical (C1) → Petrous (C2) → lacerum (C3), cavernous (C4), clinoidal (C5), ophthalmic (C6), communicating (C7)

300

Let's talk about CMT: Describe the following: 

1. Name the most common mutation

2. Name recessive gene

3. Name the X-linked Gene

1. PMP22 duplication CMT1A

2. CMT4 (Autosomal recessive)

3. CMT1X (x-linked dominant)


Bonus: Which CMT mutation is associated with axonal neuropathy and not demyelinating?

400

Describe the reversal agents for the following: 

1. Dabigatran

2. Xa inhibitors

3. Heparin

4. Warfarin

  1. Dabigatran → Idarucizumab

  2. Xa inhibitors → andexanet alfa

  3. Heparin → protamine sulfate

  4. Warfarin → FFP

400

Name the mechanism of the action of the following DMT (at least 4 out of 6)

1. Natalizumab

2. Siponimod

3. Ocrelizumab

4. Teriflunomide

5. Mitoxantrone

6. Alemtuzumab

  1. Natalizumab: alpha 4 integrin inhibitor - inhibits ability of leukocytes to cross BBB

  2. Siponimod: S1P receptor modulator - inhibits lymphocyte trafficking to to keep in lymph nodes

  3. Ocrelizumab: CD20 inhibitor

  4. Teriflunomide: inhibits pyrimidine synthesis

  5. Mitoxantrone: type-II topoisomerase inhibitor

  6. Alemtuzumab: CD52 inhibitor

400

Describe what structures arise from the following embryological structures: 

1. Telencephalon

2. Diencephalon

3. Mesencephalon

4. Metencephalon

5. Myencephalon

  1. Telencephalon → Cortex

  2. Diencephalon → Thalamic structures

  3. Mesencephalon → midbrain

  4. Metencephalon → pons/cerebellum

  5. Myelencephalon → medulla

400

Describes which sensation each receptor feels: 

1. Meissner's Corpuscles

2. Merkel cells

3. Pacinian corpuscles/ruffini endings

4. free nerve endings

  1. Meissner's Corpuscles: Light, moving touch 

  2. Merkel Cells: sustained pressure and texture discrimination

  3. Pacinian corpuscles/Ruffini endings: vibration

  4. Free nerve endings: Pain

400

Name the disorders associated with the following gene repeats (extra credit for the gene itself): 

1. GAA

2. CGG

3. CAG

4. CTG

1. GAA: Friedrich ataxia - FXN

2. CGG: Fragile X - FMR1

3. Huntington's - HTT

4. CTG: myotonic dystrophy - DMPK

Bonus: What 2 other conditions are associated with CAG repeats?

500

Describes the MOA of the following anti-seizure medications: 

1. Ezogabine

2. Vigabatrin

3. Parampanel

4. Cenobamate

  1. Ezogabine: potassium channel enhancer

  2. Vigabatrin: GABA transaminase inhibitor

  3. Parampanel: AMPA antagonist

  4. Cenobamate: GABA agonist, Na antagonist

500

Describes generally the syndrome and most common tumor locations: 

1. Anti-Hu

2. Anti-Yo

3. Anti-Ri

4. Anti-NMDA

5. Anti-Ma2

1. Anti-Hu: Sensory and/or cerebellar degeneration - Small cell

2. Anti-yo: Cerebellar degeneration - Gynecologic or breast

3. Anti-Ri: opsoclonus/myoclonus - Breast cancer (neuroblastoma in kids)

4. Anti-NMDA: temporal lobe encephalitis - ovarian teratoma

5. Anti-Ma2: medial temporal lobe/brainstem encephalitis - testicular cancer

500

Frequency of repetitive stimulation on NCS to test for Lambert Eaton, Botulism, and Myasthenia Gravis

1: Myasthenia gravis: 2-3 Hz --> decrement

2. Lambert Eaton and botulism: 20-50 Hz --> incremental response 

500

Differentiate Balint, Anton, and Charles-Bonnet syndrome

1. Balint syndrome

2. Anton Syndrome

3. Charles-Bonnet syndrome

Balint: simultagnosia, optic ataxia, ocular apraxia -- bilateral parieto-occipital lesions

Anton: Visual anosognosia - lesions to bilateral occipital lobes -- Pupil response INTACT

Charles-Bonnet: Vivid, complex hallucinations -- vision loss from other etiology (glaucoma, macular degeneration)

500

Name the chromosomal mutation for each disorder: 

1. Angelman

2. Prader-Willi

3. NF1

4. NF2

5. Rett syndrome


  1. Angelman: maternal absence of chromosome 15

  2. Prader-Willi:  paternal absence of chromosome 15

  3. NF1: Neurofibromin (NF1) chromosome 17 

  4. NF2: Merlin (NF2) chromosome 22

  5. Rett syndrome: MECP2 chromosome X