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A 28-year-old man was admitted to the hospital following several seizures. He denied prior seizures, head trauma, and systemic systemic systems. He had been maintained in a methadone program for narcotic addiction. His seizures were finally attributed to a congenital cerebral injury. His physicians gave him phenytoin and renewed his methadone. Several days later he developed agitation, anxiety to the point of incoherence, diaphoresis, and tachycardia. Which should be the consulting psychiatrist's first step?
A: administer a tranquilizer
B: administer an SSRI
C: Administer an atypical neuroleptic
D: Increase the daily methadone dose
E: increase the phenytoin dose
F: Change the AED
D: Increase the daily methadone dose;
BONUS: explain the mechanism of action behind why you would do this