Instruments
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the left from a west heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
A. The compass will initially indicate a turn to the right.
B. The compass will remain on west for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the aircraft.
C. The compass will indicate the approximate correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth.
C. The compass will indicate the approximate correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth.
If a half-standard-rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 360°?
A. 1 minute.
B. 2 minutes.
C. 4 minutes.
C. 4 minutes.
What indication should a pilot receive when a VOR station is undergoing maintenance and may be considered unreliable?
A. No coded identification, but possible navigation indications.
B. Coded identification, but no navigation indications.
C. A voice recording on the VOR frequency announcing that the VOR is out of service for maintenance.
A. No coded identification, but possible navigation indications.
For aircraft other than helicopters, is an alternate airport required for an IFR flight to ATL (Atlanta Hartsfield) if the proposed ETA is 1930Z?
TAF KATL 121720Z 121818 20012KT 5SM HZ BKN030
FM2000 3SM TSRA OVC025CB
FM2200 33015G20KT P6SM BKN015 OVC040
BECMG 0608 02008KT BKN040 BECMG 1012 00000KT P6SM CLR=
A. Yes, because the ceiling could fall below 2,000 feet within 2 hours before to 2 hours after the ETA.
B. No, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to remain at or above 1,000 feet and 3 miles, respectively.
C. No, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to be at or above 2,000 feet and 3 miles within 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA.
C. No, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to be at or above 2,000 feet and 3 miles within 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA.
Which procedure should you follow if you experience two-way communications failure while holding at a holding fix with an EFC time? (The holding fix is not the same as the approach fix.)
A. Depart the holding fix to arrive at the approach fix as close as possible to the EFC time.
B. Depart the holding fix at the EFC time.
C. Proceed immediately to the approach fix and hold until EFC.
B. Depart the holding fix at the EFC time.
If both the ram air input and the drain hole of the pitot system are blocked, what reaction should you observe on the airspeed indicator when power is applied and a climb is initiated out of severe icing conditions?
A. The indicated airspeed would show a continuous deceleration while climbing.
B. The airspeed would drop to, and remain at, zero.
C. No change until an actual climb rate is established, then indicated airspeed will increase.
C. No change until an actual climb rate is established, then indicated airspeed will increase.
Which instruments should be used to make a pitch correction when you have deviated from your assigned altitude?
A. Altimeter and VSI.
B. Manifold pressure gauge and VSI.
C. Attitude indicator, altimeter, and VSI.
C. Attitude indicator, altimeter, and VSI.
What are the primary benefits of satellite based area navigation (RNAV)?
A. Provides optimal routing and altitudes.
B. Radio tuning and controller communication is minimized.
C. Standard Terminal Arrival Routes and Departure Procedures are not required.
A. Provides optimal routing and altitudes.
For an airplane, determine the weather minimum conditions required at the destination airport to avoid listing an alternate on your IFR flight plan.
A. From 2 hours before to 2 hours after ETA, forecast ceiling 2,000, and visibility 2 and 1/2 miles.
B. From 2 hours before to 2 hours after ETA, forecast ceiling 3,000, and visibility 3 miles.
C. From 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, forecast ceiling 2,000, and visibility 3 miles.
C. From 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, forecast ceiling 2,000, and visibility 3 miles.
What altitude and route should be used if you are flying in IMC and have two-way radio communications failure?
A. Continue on the route specified in your clearance, fly at an altitude that is the highest of last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed you to expect, or the MEA.
B. Fly direct to an area that has been forecast to have VFR conditions, fly at an altitude that is at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacles along the route.
C. Descend to MEA and, if clear of clouds, proceed to the nearest appropriate airport. If not clear of clouds, maintain the highest of the MEA’s along the clearance route.
A. Continue on the route specified in your clearance, fly at an altitude that is the highest of last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed you to expect, or the MEA.
Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than actually flown (true altitude)?
A. Air temperature lower than standard.
B. Atmospheric pressure lower than standard.
C. Air temperature warmer than standard.
C. Air temperature warmer than standard.
What is the first fundamental skill in attitude instrument flying?
A. Aircraft control.
B. Instrument cross-check.
C. Instrument interpretation.
B. Instrument cross-check.
When your aircraft is equipped with a TSO-C129 or TSO-C196 GPS, an airport may not be qualified for alternate use if
A. the only standard approach procedure is GPS at the destination and alternate.
B. the airport has only AWOS-3 weather reporting and no LAAS equipment operational.
C. the airport is next to a restricted or prohibited area.
A. the only standard approach procedure is GPS at the destination and alternate.
Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding altitude and course to be maintained during an IFR off airways flight over mountainous terrain?
A. 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 5 NM of course.
B. 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 NM of course.
C. 7,500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 3 NM of course.
B. 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 NM of course.
Which types of airspace are depicted on the En Route Low Altitude Chart?
A. Limits of controlled airspace, military training routes, and special use airspace.
B. Class A, special use airspace, Class D, and Class E.
C. Special use airspace, Class E, Class D, Class A, Class B, and Class C.
A. Limits of controlled airspace, military training routes, and special use airspace.
In a Technologically Advanced Aircraft, the pilot sees the flight instruments on what?
A. PFD.
B. AHRS.
C. MFD.
A. PFD.
Which instruments, in addition to the attitude indicator, are pitch instruments?
A. Altimeter and airspeed only.
B. Altimeter and VSI only.
C. Altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator.
C. Altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator.
Prior to using GPS waypoints for RNAV, what can you do to check the current status of the GPS database?
A. Contact the local FSS and have them verify the current status of the database.
B. Contact the ATC/ARTCC that issued the En Route Low Altitude chart to verify the current status of the GPS waypoints.
C. Compare the GPS database to the En Route Low Altitude chart. If they are the same, the GPS database is current.
C. Compare the GPS database to the En Route Low Altitude chart. If they are the same, the GPS database is current.
Which procedure is recommended while climbing to an assigned altitude on the airway?
A. Climb on the centerline of the airway except when maneuvering to avoid other air traffic in VFR conditions.
B. Climb slightly on the right side of the airway when in VFR conditions.
C. Climb far enough to the right side of the airway to avoid climbing or descending traffic coming from the opposite direction if in VFR conditions.
A. Climb on the centerline of the airway except when maneuvering to avoid other air traffic in VFR conditions.
What are the vertical limits of a transition area that is designated in conjunction with an airport having a prescribed IAP?
A. Surface to 700 feet AGL.
B. 1,200 feet AGL to the base of the overlying controlled airspace.
C. 700 feet AGL or more to the base of the overlying controlled airspace.
C. 700 feet AGL or more to the base of the overlying controlled airspace.
The displacement of a turn coordinator during a coordinated turn will
A. indicate the angle of bank.
B. remain constant for a given bank regardless of airspeed.
C. increase as angle of bank increases.
C. increase as angle of bank increases.
While cruising at 160 knots, you wish to establish a climb at 130 knots. When entering the climb (full panel), it is proper to make the initial pitch change by increasing back elevator pressure until the
A. attitude indicator, airspeed, and vertical speed indicate a climb.
B. vertical speed indication reaches the predetermined rate of climb.
C. attitude indicator shows the approximate pitch attitude appropriate for the 130-knot climb.
C. attitude indicator shows the approximate pitch attitude appropriate for the 130-knot climb.
Determine the approximate time and distance to a station if a 5° wingtip bearing change occurs in 1.5 minutes with a true airspeed of 95 knots.
A. 16 minutes and 14.3 NM.
B. 18 minutes and 28.5 NM.
C. 18 minutes and 33.0 NM.
B. 18 minutes and 28.5 NM.
What is the required flight visibility and distance from clouds if you are operating in Class E airspace at 9,500 feet MSL with a VFR-on-Top clearance during daylight hours?
A. 3 SM, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.
B. 5 SM, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.
C. 3 SM, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.
A. 3 SM, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.
Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight-and-level flight in VMC?
A. Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals.
B. Concentrate on relative movement detected in the peripheral vision area.
C. Continuous sweeping of the windshield from right to left.
A. Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals.