Burns
Assessment
Injuries
Scenerios
Bonus x2
100

This layer of the skin is primarily affected in first-degree burns?

What is the epidermis?

100

In your Trauma assessment skill sheet, after you perform your scene size-up, what is the next step to perform?

Delegates and directs spinal precautions.

100

A fracture where the bone breaks but does not pierce the skin, potentially leading to deformity and loss of function.

What is a closed fracture?

100

You are treating a patient with pneumothorax suspected from blunt trauma to the chest. The patient has hypotension, tracheal deviation, and absent breath sounds on one side. What is your primary intervention?

Needle decompression

100

Shearing forces separate the skin from the underlying tissues


Degloving injury 

200

This is the recommended solution for fluid resuscitation during the first 24 hours after a burn injury.

What is Lactated Ringer's solution?

200

What are you looking for in Disability?

LOC and Pupils

200

his life-threatening condition occurs when a large section of the chest wall is fractured in multiple places, often leading to lung collapse.

What is flail chest?

200

A 45-year-old male presents after being struck by a car. He is pale, tachycardic, and hypotensive. His extremities are cold, and he has blood loss from a laceration on his thigh. What type of shock are you likely dealing with?

Hypovolemic Sgock

200

Injuries occur when people are propelled through space by an explosion or blast wind, striking stationary objects. Injuries similar to those from vertical falls. What kind of injury?



Tertiary blast injuries

300

This is a surgical procedure sometimes required for deep burns, where necrotic tissue is removed to promote healing.

What is debridement?

300

What are all the thing to look for when examining the head during your secondary survey?

Racoon eyes, Battle signs, Le Fort Fracture, Oral Trauma, CSF, Present in blood (halo test)

300

Le Fort 2 fracture involves?

nasal bones and medial orbits.

300

A 32-week pregnant female is involved in a high-speed MVC. She has abdominal bruising, hypotension, and uterine tenderness. What is the suspected diagnosis

Placenta abruptio

300
Three phases of trauma

pre-event, event, post event.

400

Pediatric fluid resuscitation is indicated in children who have?

10% to 20% TBSA

400

What is NSAID and what does it help you determine?

Neurological deficits, Spinal tenderness, Altered mental status, Intoxication, Distracting injury, and it evaluates the need for C-spine.

400

Pain, Pallor, Paresthesia, Pulseness, Paralysis, and Poikilothermia are signs of what?

Compartment syndrome

400

You respond to a construction site where a 28-year-old male has been pinned under a collapsed concrete wall for approximately 45 minutes. Fire crews extricated him just before your arrival. He is alert but pale and diaphoretic. His legs show deformity, ecchymosis, and decreased capillary refill. Vitals: HR 124, BP 90/56, RR 28, SpO₂ 92%. As you prepare for transport, his ECG shows peaked T waves.

What is the most likely underlying trauma type?

Crush Injury

400

what is open vault fracture 

opening between scalp laceration and brain tissue 

500

This is the condition in which a burn patient suffers from renal failure, often due to myoglobin released during a crush injury or electrical burn.

What is rhabdomyolysis?

500

What should the ongoing assessment contain?

LOC, Bleeding control measures, Airway compliance, physical exam, and appropriate treatment evaluation.

500

What is barotitis?

Inflammation and injury to middle ear due to barometric pressure.

500

You respond to a 911 call for a 4-year-old child who fell from a second-story window, approximately 9 feet onto concrete. Upon arrival, the child is lying supine, crying. He has bruising to the right side of his head.

Vitals: HR 168, RR 40, BP 84/44, SpO₂ 94% RA, GCS 11 (E3, V3, M5)

Is this red or yellow criteria?

Yellow

500

What are the 3 zones of the Jackson thermal theory? Which one is the most critical zone? 

zone of coagulation, zone of stasis, zone of hyperemia

zone of coagulation