CPR
Which of the following describes a CPR performance error that lifeguards should avoid?
A Needing to pause CPR for 5-10 seconds to address something that may impact care.
B Leaning on the chest between chest compressions.
C Arms and back straight, pivoting at the hip.
D The person receiving compressions is at knee level with the compressor.
When performing rescue breathing how do you determine if each ventilation was properly delivered?
A Each delivered ventilation should result in visible color returning to the guest’s face; if not seen, re-tilt and reattempt the ventilation.
B Each delivered ventilation should result in visible chest rise; if not seen, re-tilt and reattempt the ventilation.
C Each delivered ventilation should result in visible stomach bloat; if not seen, re-tilt and reattempt the ventilation.
D Each delivered ventilation should result in visible arm or leg movement; if not seen, re-tilt, and reattempt the ventilation.
Which of the following is necessary to effectively perform a compact jump?
A Jump into the water with your legs together, knees bent and feet flat.
B Jump into the water like a cannonball, with knees up to your chest.
C Stride into the water, then kick your legs together.
D Jump into the water leaning backwards with your tube trailing behind.
How can Naloxone be used when providing care?
A As a pain reliever for an open fracture.
B A medication to counteract anaphylaxis.
C A medication that can be administered when an opioid overdose is suspected.
D An inhalation medication given to individuals with asthma and COPD.
Which of the following lists signs of hypoxia?
A Extensive rash, swelling, and red lips.
B Breathing that is weak, labored, and blue lips.
C Fast heart rate combined with a fruity breath odor.
D Hunger, thirst, and heavy sweating.
As a single rescuer how do you perform CPR on an infant?
A 1-2 fingers at the center of the chest, performing 15 compressions, at 1/3 of the depth of the chest, followed by 2 breaths.
B 2 hands at the center of the chest, performing 30 compressions, at 1/3 of the depth of the chest, followed by 2 breaths.
C 1 hand at the center of the chest, performing 30 compressions, at 1/3 of the depth of the chest, followed by 2 breaths.
D 2 thumbs at the center of the chest, performing 15 compressions, at 1/3 of the depth of the chest, followed by 2 breaths.
After positioning an in-water unresponsive guest face up on your rescue tube, what should you do next?
A While moving toward the extrication point, open the airway to quickly check for signs of breathing.
B While moving toward the extrication point, open the airway and quickly check for a pulse for up to 10 seconds.
C While moving toward the extrication point, open the airway, place your mask on their face and begin rescue breathing.
D While moving toward the extrication point, communicate with the guest and the other lifeguards.
What is the PRIMARY overall objective of 10/20 Protection?
A To contribute to the lifeguard’s overall professional image to guests at the facility.
B A scanning strategy that makes lifeguards more attentive to what is happening everywhere at the facility.
C The prompt recognition of, and rendering aid to, an in-water guest in distress by a vigilant lifeguard.
D Infants and children must be rescued in 10 seconds or less and adults in 20 seconds or less.
Which of the following lists signs of hypoxia?
A Extensive rash, swelling, and red lips.
B Breathing that is weak, labored, and blue lips.
C Fast heart rate combined with a fruity breath odor.
D Hunger, thirst, and heavy sweating.
Why are whistle codes and hand signals important to use at a facility?
A To stop guests and other lifeguards from being annoying.
B To help distract you when scanning becomes difficult.
C To provide a basic means of quick staff and guest communication.
D To get your friend’s attention while they are playing at your pool.
An adult is not breathing and does not have a pulse, so you get positioned to begin CPR with placement of 2 hands at the center of the chest.
Which of the following care sequences is the best option to follow?
A Perform 30 compressions, each 1 - 2 inches deep allowing the chest to fully recoil, at a rate of at least 120 compressions per minute.
B Perform 30 compressions, each 1 - 1.4 inches deep allowing the chest to fully recoil, at a rate of 100 compressions per minute.
C Perform 15 compressions, each 1.5 - 2 inches deep allowing the chest to fully recoil, at a rate of 100 compressions per minute.
D Perform 30 compressions, each 2 – 2.4 inches deep allowing the chest to fully recoil, at a rate of 100 compressions per minute.
When is it appropriate to perform in-water rescue breathing on an unresponsive guest, who is not breathing?
A In-water rescue breathing should begin immediately after confirming the guest is not breathing.
B. In-water rescue breathing should only be performed if the in-water lifeguard reaches the extrication point with the unresponsive, (and not breathing) guest, before on-deck lifeguards are ready to proceed with rapid extrication.
C. In-water rescue breathing should be performed as soon as the in-water lifeguard places the unresponsive, (and not breathing) guest face up on the rescue tube.
D In-water rescue breathing should be performed as soon as the in-water lifeguard reaches the extrication point with the unresponsive, (and not breathing) guest.
In which of the following stages of drowning would a guest rarely need any further care if rescued promptly?
A The Respiratory Arrest stage.
B The Surprise stage.
C The Unconsciousness stage.
D The Hypoxic Convulsions stage.
Under what circumstances should a tourniquet be considered?
A When a guest has a catastrophic wound to a limb with bleeding that cannot be controlled using conventional bandages and pressure.
B When a guest has a puncture wound to a limb and bleeding is controlled using conventional bandages and pressure.
C When a guest suffers a head injury that includes severe bleeding that cannot be controlled using conventional bandages and pressure.
D When a guest has a minor wound and proper bandaging is not immediately available.
Which of the following guests may be helped by providing supplemental oxygen using a non-rebreather mask?
A An unresponsive guest with a strong pulse but is not breathing normally.
B A responsive guest who says they are having an asthma attack and needs help with their inhaler.
C A responsive guest with slow or labored breathing, bluish lips, blue-gray fingers, and cold skin.
D A responsive guest who is dehydrated and suffering from a bad sun burn.
How should you provide care for a responsive infant with a severe airway obstruction?
A While standing: Give 5 chest thrusts using 1 hand on the lowest part of the sternum.
B While sitting: Give 5 back blows on the lower back followed by 5 chest thrusts using 1 hand at the center of the chest.
C While standing: Give 5 chest thrusts using 1 hand at the center of the chest then attempt 2 breaths.
D While sitting: Give 5 back blows between the shoulder blades followed by 5 chest thrusts using 1 hand at the center of the chest.
When performing rescue breathing how do you determine if each ventilation was properly delivered?
A Each delivered ventilation should result in visible color returning to the guest’s face; if not seen, re-tilt and reattempt the ventilation.
B Each delivered ventilation should result in visible chest rise; if not seen, re-tilt and reattempt the ventilation.
C Each delivered ventilation should result in visible stomach bloat; if not seen, re-tilt and reattempt the ventilation.
D Each delivered ventilation should result in visible arm or leg movement; if not seen, re-tilt, and reattempt the ventilation.
What is the Underarm Vise Grip and when is it appropriate to use?
A A SMR hold used to stabilize an in-water responsive guest with a suspected spinal injury.
B A SMR hold only used to stabilize responsive guests with a suspected spinal injury who are found standing or sitting.
C A SMR hold used to specifically allow smooth placement of a responsive guest with a suspected spinal injury, on to the backboard.
D A SMR hold used on guests already positioned onto the backboard to allow placement of the head immobilizer.
To reduce movement when a broken bone is suspected, which first aid item or items would be the most useful?
A A rigid, soft, or anatomic splint (and associated bandages), depending on the location of the injury.
B A pressure bandage, which will also reduce blood flow, depending on the location of the injury.
C A backboard, which will also assist in moving the injured guest, depending on the location of the injury.
D Hemostatic gauze which will also prevent bleeding, depending on the location of the injury.
When should a “Secondary Check” be performed on a guest?
A Immediately before providing rescue breathing or CPR to determine which care the guest needs.
B During any stoppage of CPR or rescue breathing care if guest is still unresponsive to determine what care may be needed.
C Only after the AED prompts to deliver a shock since this will restart the heart.
D Only if there are no life-threatening conditions found during the Primary Check or once normal breathing is restored.
When would it be appropriate for you to begin CPR on an unresponsive guest of any age?
A Immediately after checking for responsiveness for 10 seconds, calling for an AED and getting assistance from other lifeguards.
B Immediately after returning to the unresponsive guest’s side with the AED and other lifeguards.
C After removing an unresponsive guest from the water who is not breathing.
D After taking 10 seconds to perform the Primary Check - not finding signs of breathing but you are unsure if the pulse was felt.
If your first ventilation does not result in the chest to rise within 1 second, what should you do next?
A Give 30 chest compressions and check in the mouth.
B Press the resuscitation mask tighter to the face to avoid leakage.
C Re-tilt head, re-seal the mask, and attempt a second ventilation.
D Remove the mask and check the mouth, performing a finger sweep only if you see the object.
How would you assess an unresponsive guest in the water?
A With the guest face up on the rescue tube, move toward the extrication point, open the airway & quickly check for spontaneous breathing.
B With the guest face up on the back board, open the airway & quickly check for spontaneous breathing.
C With the guest face up, open the airway & check breathing for up to 10 seconds before moving toward the extrication point.
D With the guest face up on the rescue tube, open the airway using the jaw thrust with head tilt, to check for pulse and breathing for up to 10 seconds while moving toward the extrication point.
If a responsive guest is having an anaphylactic reaction, which of the following devices may be needed to help?
A Supplemental oxygen system attached to the BVM.
B Naloxone nasal spray.
C Epinephrine auto-injector or Epinephrine nasal spray.
D An asthma rescue inhaler.
You have started helping a guest who may be choking on food. Because the guest is coughing, you encourage the guest to continue to cough.
Which of the following guest actions would cause you to begin hands on Responsive FBAO care procedures INSTEAD OF another care response?
A The guest stops coughing, turns pale and begins to vomit; he tells you that he has severe stomach pain.
B The guest stops coughing, and cannot speak, cry, or make any other sound, all while grasping his throat.
C The guest starts speaking loudly in short sentences, between coughs that they think they are choking.
D The guest stops coughing and then collapses in front of you; he is now motionless on the ground.