VCE Composition
List the four key members of the evaluation team
Primary Evaluator, Timing Controller, Thermal Optic/Audio Controller, RTO
Units are authorized to use full or scaled (¾) targets on what tables?
III, IV, V
All presented targets will be fully exposed for _____ seconds in the offense and defense.
50
What are the prerequisite tables known as?
Gates to Live Fire
How Many Elements In a Fire Command?
9
When considering qualification and requalification what are the time requirements?
Active Component is required in T- _________
Reserve Component is required in T- _________
AC weeks T-6
RC Months T-9
Are Mounted Machine Gun (MMG) platforms required to fire defensive engagement?
Yes, one Defensive Engagement Day and Night
What is the maximum number of targets that will be presented to an MMG platform?
2
After which table/tables can live fire (to include zero) begin?
Tables I, II, III (Prerequisites)
Initial defilade is provided in the defense for all crews when?
The crew is properly positioned in their defensive firing position, All targets in the presentation are locked, and The crew has not engaged any targets currently presented
Which Tables can be Internally Evaluated?
Tables III, IV, V
What is an Alibi?
The process used for a crew to overcome a catastrophic event or an unsafe condition that prevented them from executing the engagement to the conditions listed through no fault of their own
What are the Short and Long Range Requirements for a 7.62mm, Caliber .50
Short <400m
Long >600m
What training aid (if it exists for the weapon system) must be used to complete Table III, Proficiency?
TADSS (MILES)
What are the Two common ADMINISTRATIVE means to cease fire during an engagement?
CEASE FORE FREEZE
CHECK FIRE
Which prerequisite should the primary evaluator meet prior to evaluating live fire gunnery?
SGT or Above with experience serving as a VC
Weapons System Qualified within the last Qualification Period (9 Months AC, 1 Year RC)
Certified or Recertified (T-6 to T-1 AC)(T-9 to T1 RC)
Must Be an Experience VC for the same platform type to conduct the AAR
Negligent Discharge is what penalty?
DQ-04
Name the Degraded Task for ITAS
Thermal Mode Failure, Firer must use day optic to acquire and engage targets.
On what tables are scaled targets authorized?
IV & V
The Firer of the VC must announce a sensing before what?
Any Subsequent Fire Command
Any Supplemental Fire Command
Before Termination of any Engagement
What are the Primary Evaluators NOT allowed to do?
Alter or change scoring information on an common crew score sheet they are not assigned.
Create Crew Penalties Not Specifically Listed in TC3-20.31
Disqualification Criteria is met when?
-A crew preforms an action listed in the immediate disqualification penalty
-A crew preforms three, 30-point penalties, "Failure to adhere to basic safety/personnel protection precepts" during the same table
-Unit commander determines individuals or crew consistently preform unsafe acts during non-firing or preparation tasks
LRF Inoperative- Firer must estimate the range and manually adjust the weapon onto target
FCU Failure- Firer must use manual means to fire the weapon during an engagement
Thermal Optics Inoperative- Firer must use back-up sight to acquire and engage the targets.
What is required for a Qualified/Superior/Distinguished crew rating?
Qualified: 70+ points per target on at least 7 of 10 qualified engagements with at least 700 points of the 1000 possible
Superior: 80+ points per target on at least 8 of 10 qualified engagements with at least 800 points of the 1000 possible
Distinguished: 90+ points per target on at least 9 of 10 qualified engagements with at least 900 points of the 1000 possible
Once Fire and Adjust is given, the firer has control of the weapon system. What must the VC do to regain Control of the turret?
The VC MUST announce CEASE FIRE, give a subsequent fire command, or give a supplemental fire command.