Transmission of ___ is primarily oral-nasal (saliva)
Both FIV and FeLV! (gotcha! Maybe)
FIV is transmitted horizontally - typically via fight or bite wounds.
FeLV Subtype A is transmitted vertically AND horizontally. Young kittens are at greatest risk.
infects epithelial cells of the small intestine
FCeV
(vs FIP infects macrophages)
The clinical presentation known as "Blue eye" is caused by the virus ______ and is an example of ________
Canine Adenovirus-1 (CAV-1) which causes Canine Hepatitis
"Blue eye" is a Type III Hypersensitivity
Bloodwork from a patient indicates high levels of IgM. Does this indicate an active infection?
Yes, IgM indicates a recent or active infection. IgG indivates a primary or secondary response.
Rank the 3 types of placenta (Hemochorial, Eptheliochorial, Endotheliochorial) based on # of cell layers (from thickest to thinnest) and give an example of an animal with each type.
Epitheliochorial - herbivores (cattle, sheep, etc)
Endotheliochorial- carnivores (canine, feline, etc)
Hemochorial - rodents and primates
Acute, Asymptomatic, and Clinical describe the stages of disease for which viral disease of cats?
What is each stage characterized by?
FIV
Acute- fever, lymphadenopathy, lymphopenia, low CD4, high CD8, POSITIVE for Ab and PCR
Asymptomatic- subclinical, lasts months to years, POSITIVE for Ab +/- PCR
Clinical- low CD4, low CD8, predisposed to secondary infections and neoplasia (clinical signs: gingivitis, colitis, skin/ear infections, protozoa/coccidia infections, fungal infections), POSITIVE for Ab and PCR
What is the gold standard for differentiating FIP from FCeV?
Histopathology
Match the following canine respiratory diseases with vaccine type used (Intranasal, Oral, or SubQ):
Bordetella, Influenza, Adenovirus-2, Parainfluenza virus-1
*some may have more than 1 vaccine type
Bordetella bronchiseptica - intranasal, oral, SQ
Canine Influenza virus- SQ
Canine Adenovirus-2- intranasal, SW
Canine parainfluenza virus-1- intranasal
Adjuvants, injection site sarcomas, hypersensitivities, and reversion are potential undesirable consequences of which type of injectable vaccine?
Inactivated (killed) vaccine
*note: this is the vaccine type used for pregnant animals and a booster (second shot) is usually required.
Compare and contrast Toxoids vs Therapeutic Biologics.
A Toxoid is a toxin (ex. diamondback rattlesnake) that induces a humoral (Ab) response.
Therapeutic Biologics are antibodies and other synthetic peptides.
Describe Abortive, Regressive, and Progressive modes of pathogenesis of this viral disease.
What will the results from each type of diagnostic test (PCR, Ag, Ab) show?
FeLV
Abortive- cat mounts effective immune response against virus and completely eliminates/aborts it (NEGATIVE for PCR and antigen; POSITIVE for antibodies)
Regressive- cat mounts effective immune response against virus and completely eliminates viremia, but NOT all FeLV DNA is eliminated from the body (NEGATIVE for Antigen, WEAK POS for PCR and Antibodies)
Progressive- insufficient immune response developed by the cat (POSITIVE antigen and PCR, NEGATIVE antibodies)
This viral disease (___) may cause immunosuppression through apoptosis of T lymphocytes or antibody-dependent enhancement (host antibodies facilitate macrophage infection). Pathophysiology involving antigen-antibody complexes causing complement activation and release of inflammatory cytokines (leading to vasculitis) describes _______. The clinical signs would be described as ____.
FIP, Type III Hypersensitivity, effusive
Which is NOT a common cause of Infectious Tracheobronchitis (aka Canine Respiratory Disease Complex)?
(Canine) parainfluenza virus-1, coronavirus, picornavirus, influzenza, adenovirus-2
All of the above are common causes of CIRD EXCEPT picornavirus would be better classified as a novel cause.
Novel causes of CIRD are (canine) pneumovirus, picornavirus, hepavirus, bocavirus
Explain the benefits of a Modified Live / Live Attenuated vaccine. Explain why MLVs are NOT used on pregnant animals.
Benefits of MLVs:
(1) multiple ways to deliver it: mucosal, topical, or injectable
(2) no immediate booster requirement
(3) reversion, self-limiting diseases, storage
Because the vaccine contents are replication competent, it is NOT used in pregnant or immune-compromised animals
How long should you quarantine a dog suspected of rabies infection?
What should you do at the first sign of illness?
Describe the diagnostic procedure for rabies (type of sample submitted, test done).
Quarantine for 10 days.
Euthanize at the first sign of illness.
Submit brain tissue and do fluorescent antibody testing
What diagnostic tests exist for FIV and FeLV and what do they detect?
*Which test do you have to be careful of false positives?
FeLV - detecting p27 capsid protein
(1) ELISA run on wb, serum, plasma, saliva... results in 10 min
(2) IFA... better at detecting later in infection
(2) PCR... detects viral nucleic acid
FIV
(1) ELISA - same as above
(2) PCR - same as above
(2) Western Blot- detects antibody
Be careful of false positives with ELISAs!
[BONUS] List 2 ways Feline panleukopenia is similar to Canine Parvovirus and discuss how timing of infection in utero affects disease development
1. persistent in the environment -- need bleach to inactivate
2. targets intestinal epithelial cells
Late in utero or neonatal infection affects CNS development, cerebbelar hypoplasia, littermate differences
A new breeder in Canada calls you and asks why a recent litter of puppies was born weak. He mentions some have died. On necropsy, you notice the kidney has a "turkey egg" appearance. Histopath reveals intranuclear inclusion bodies and thickened respiratory epithelium. What virus do these pups have?
Canine Herpes
Which has more IgG- colostrum or milk? Which has more IgA?
Colostrum - IgG
Milk- IgA
Racoons and gray foxes are wildlife reservoirs for this enveloped -ssRNA Paramyxovirus, although dogs are the primary reservoir. Name the virus and the various types of vaccines available (there are 2).
Distemper
Modified live virus- strong protection; complications may occur
Recombinant canarypox vaccine- (the only option for ferrets) shorter immunity
There is a vaccine for ___
There IS a vaccine for FeLV that offers 1-2 years of protection against a progressive outcome. It is inactivated whole virion and recombinant subunit.
**The FIV vaccine was discontinued in the US and Canada. Make sure you understand why!
Name the 2 main viruses responsible for respiratory disease in cats.
1. Conjunctivitis, keratitis, corneal ulcers are associated with ____
2. Stomatitis and oral ulceration are associated with ____
What are some clinical signs they have in common?
1. Feline Rhinotracheitis (FVR)
2. Feline Calicivirus
fever, lacrimation, rhinitis, salivation, depression, anorexia
During a wellness visit, a client mentions to you that they noticed some lesions in their dog's mouth a few weeks ago, but then they went away. What virus might have been responsible for this and why does spontaneous regression occur?
Canine Papillomavirus-1
Spontaneous regression is due to cell-mediated (T-cell) immune response. (Humoral immunity prevents lesions, but cannot resolve them on its own)
After primary infection of tonsils and lymph nodes, this virus disseminates in the bloodstream (viremia) and replicates in vascular endothelial cells, causing hemorrhage and direct cytopathic effects on liver, kidney, and cornea. Post-mortem, you may see gallbladder edema on necropsy and hepatic necrosis with basophilic intranuclear inclusion bodies on histopathology. What is the virus and what kind of vaccine is available to prevent it?
Canine Adenovirus-1 which causes Canine Hepatitis
Modified-live CAV-2 vaccine is a core vaccine that can be administered intranasal or SQ. It offers protection against CAV-1 without blue eye.
A 6 week old puppy comes into the clinic with STINKY bloody diarrhea. You rush for a SNAP test and bleach. What virus do you suspect the puppy is infected with? What are the structural characteristics of the virus and which cells does it infect?
Canine Parvovirus 2 - non-enveloped, small ssDNA genome
infects actively dividing cells in the GI crypt epithelium, hematopoietic precursor cells, and cardiomyocytes