PPD 1
PPD 2
PPH 1
PPH 2
CCS Theory
100

What is explicit vs implicit consent?

Explicit: written or oral --> needed for anesthesia, invasive procedures, blood transfusions or experimental treatments

Implied: patient indicates willingness to undergo procedure e.g. rolling up sleeve for venipuncture

100

List the 4 elements of consent

1. Specific

2. Capacitiy/Competent

3. Informed

4. Voluntary

100

Give 2 advantages and disadvantages of a cross sectional study

Advantages: Quick and easy. Can generate hypothesis. Gives info for health planning

Disadvantages: Temporal relationships unclear, Subject to bias, Response rate (if low), Not good for hypothesis testing, may not detect rapidly fatal condition

100

Give 2 advantages and disadvantages of a randomised control trial study

Advantages: "gold standard" for evaluating an invention. Investigator can control the whole study

Disadvantages: Truly randomising subjects may be impossible/unethical, Time consuming and expensive, Limited generalizability, Can only study known factors

100

Term for vomiting blood

Vomiting blood (hematemesis)

200

4 ways to deal with stress as a medical student/doctor?

• Having a general practitioner

• Be aware of the risks of self-diagnosis & self-treatment

• Recognise the impact of fatigue on your own health & ability to care for patient

• Have supportive work colleagues, appreciative superiors, effective infrastructure

• Maintain interests outside medicine

• Doctor’s Health Advisory Service there to assist you

• Know when to give up practice

200

What are 3 implications for physician impairment caused by stress?

For doctor --> become strained, which takes the form of burnout (physical & emotional exhaustion)

For patient --> increased clinical errors, potentially fatal implications

For community --> less doctors in the area: drastic effects in rural & remote areas

200

Differentiate between incidence and prevalance

Incidence refers to the number of new cases of a disease reported in a given population, over a given period of time.

.

Prevalence is the number of cases of an illness in a population at a set point in time. 

200

What is capacity and list 3 things that could impact one's capacity?

It is the patient’s ability to understand the relevant information and to appreciate the consequences of the decision. May not have capacity if affected by alcohol/drugs, mental illness, intellectual impairment

200

4 clinical signs of hepatitis

  • Jaundice – Yellowing of the skin and sclera due to elevated bilirubin.

  • Hepatomegaly

  • Tenderness in the right upper quadrant (RUQ)

  • Dark urine 

300

List 4 instances of exceptions to obtaining consent

1. Emergency treatment: unless reason to believe the patient would refuse treatment if capable

2. Treatment ordered by court 

3. Procedures authorized by statute )Compulsory blood, drug and alcohol estimate on the request of a police officer)

4. Involuntary admission of psychiatric patients

300

When can confidentiality be breached?

1. When the patient has given their consent

2. When it is required by the law

3. If there is danger to the patient or to others

300
What is the bradford hill criteria used for and what are 5 factors of it?

The Bradford Hill criteria include nine viewpoints by which to evaluate human epidemiologic evidence to determine if causation can be deduced: strength, consistency, specificity, temporality, biological gradient, plausibility, coherence, experiment, and analogy.

300

What is a confounding variable?

factor that is associated with both the exposure and the outcome

Criteria for a confounding factor:

• It is a risk factor for a disease in patients who are not exposed

• It is associated with exposure in the source population

• It is not an intermediate between the exposure and outcome ie. Not on the same causal pathway

• The effect of the exposure is different in patients with confounder present vs absent

300

5 clinical signs/symptoms of down syndrome

1. Congenital heart defects

2. Intellectual disability

3. hypotonia in newborn babies

4. single palmar crease

5. epicanthic folds

400

What is the Duty of Care?

A registered medical practitioner has an obligation (0.5) to adhere to a standard of reasonable care to patients (0.5) in the confines of a patient-doctor relationship (0.5). Duty of care is both an ethical and a legal concept. (0.5)

400

Define patient autonomy

Patient autonomy is the right (0.5) of competent patient (0.5) to make informed decisions (0.5) about their own medical care (0.5).

400

Define Relative Risk + formula

Ratio of probability of an event occurring in an exposed group to the probability of the event occurring in an

unexposed group. RR = Risk of disease in the "exposed" population /  Risk of disease in the "unexposed" population

400

Define Odds ratio + formula

Quantifies how strongly the presence or absence of property A is associated with the presence or absence of property B

OR: Odds of exposure in "CASES" (disease present) / Odds of exposure in "CONTROLS" (disease absent

400

3 signs of hypoglycemia

  • Sweating

  • Tachycardia

  • Altered level of consciousness (e.g. confusion, drowsiness, or even loss of consciousness)

500

What term does "Failure to obtain consent" refer to?

It refers to battery

500

What term does this refer to: "Failure to inform the patient of risks"?

It refers to negligence

500

Rank these in order of best to worst

Case Reports/case series
Animal research

Randomised Control Trial

Case Control Studies

Meta analysis

Cohort Studies

Systematic review



Meta analys
Systematic revie
Randomised Control Trial
Cohort Studies
Case Control Studies
Case Reports/case series
Animal research

500

Interpret this graph

Refer to answers for graphs

500

3 signs of DKA

  1. Kussmaul breathing – deep, labored breathing due to metabolic acidosis

  2. Dehydration – dry mucous membranes, hypotension, tachycardia

  3. Fruity (acetone) breath odor – due to ketone body production