PBL
PBL
Anatomy
Lucky Dip
Unlucky Dip
100

According to their proliferative capacity, which cells are able to regenerate?

Labile cells

Stable (quiescent) cells

100

Which subunit of troponin does Ca2+ bind to during muscle contraction?

Troponin C

100

What structures divides the diamond-shaped region of the perineum into anterior and posterior triangles?

Perineal body

100

Define pharmacodynamics and pharmacokinetics

  • Pharmacodynamics – what the drug does to the body 
  • Pharmacokinetics – what the body does to the drug
100

2 histological features of cardiac muscle

  • Cells are short and narrow and are attached in a chain that branches
  • Central nucleus surrounded by clear cytoplasm (storage of glycogen and mitochondria)
  • Cells communicate via intercalated discs
  • Striations
200

What do the electrodes measure in an EMG?

Speed of muscle response or electrical activity in response to a nerve's stimulation of the muscle.

200

What is the most effective population level strategy for the prevention of alcohol related harm?

  • The most effective population-level strategy identified is alcohol taxation, which directly impacts consumption by making alcohol less affordable.
200

3 constrictions of the oesophagus?

Cervical - cricopharyneus

Thoracic - L main bronchus + aorta

Diaphragmatic - oesophageal hiatus

200

Alcohol is eliminated from the body via first order kinetics or zero order kinetics? Why?

Zero order

  • Alcohol dehydrogenase becomes saturated at relatively low alcohol concentrations ∴ the saturation of the enzyme means that a constant amount of alcohol is metabolised per unit of time and this amount is independent of the actual amount of alcohol present at any time
200

What is Meissner's Corpuscle and where is it found (layer of skin)?

Light touch receptor/vibration receptor of the skin. Found in the papillary layer of the dermis of thick skin.

300

Which structure is responsible for transporting calcium back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum during skeletal muscle relaxation?

SERCA pump

300

ATP hydrolysis is induced by which of the following stages of skeletal muscle contraction?

A - Power Stroke

B - ACh reaching the motor end plate

C - SERCA activation

D - Detachment of myosin from actin

D -  Detachment of myosin from actin

300

Which is true of the renal veins?

a. The right renal vein is longer than the left renal vein

b. The left renal vein drains into the hepatic portal vein

c. The left renal vein is longer than the right renal vein

d. The right renal vein crosses the abdominal aorta anteriorly

e. The left renal vein crosses the abdominal aorta posteriorly

c. The left renal vein is longer than the right renal vein

300

List the three sites where renal calculi will most likely become lodged?

Pelvoureteric junction

Pelvic brim (where ureter crosses iliac vessels)

Vesicoureteric junction

300

Microscopic appearance of Escherichia coli

Gram-negative rods

400

Name 3 primary prevention strategies for alcohol related harm.

  • Education Campaigns: These aim to raise awareness of the risks associated with excessive alcohol consumption. While valuable for increasing knowledge, their direct impact on behaviour change is variable.
  • Alcohol Taxation and Pricing: Increasing the price of alcohol through taxation is one of the most effective methods to reduce alcohol consumption and associated harms. A 10% price increase can lead to a 5% reduction in alcohol-related mortality.
  • Regulation of Licensed Premises: Measures such as restricting the density of alcohol outlets and regulating operating hours help reduce alcohol availability and consumption.
  • Legal Drinking Age and Promotion of Low Alcohol Beverages: Enforcing age restrictions and promoting lower alcohol alternatives can help minimize youth access and encourage safer drinking patterns.
  • Counteracting Alcohol Advertising: Restrictions on advertising, particularly those targeting youth, help reduce the glamorisation of drinking.
400

Name the 4 stages of wound healing.

Haemostasis

Inflammation

Proliferation

Remodelling

400

The sternal angle (of Louis) is an important anatomical landmark on the thorax. An imaginary horizontal line from the sternal angle to the inferior endplate of T4 is known as the thoracic plane. List five anatomical structures that are found along this plane.

Any of: Second rib, aortic arch, tracheal bifurcation and carina, pulmonary trunk divides, ligamentum arteriosum, azygous vein drains into SVC, recurrent laryngeal nerve, cardiac plexus, thoracic duct crosses right to left, demarcates superior and inferior mediastinum.

400

Outline 2 pathogenic mechanisms by which H. Pylori initiates a chronic inflammatory response.

  • Survival in Acidic Environment
  • Produces urease that converts urea into ammonia and carbon dioxide ∴ ammonia neutralises the stomach acid → hospital microenvironment for colonisation (usually antrum which is less acidic)
  • Uses flagella to move through the gastric mucous layer and attach to the epithelial surface
  • Adherence to Epithelial Cells
  • Adhesins facilitate the attachment to epithelial cells of the stomach ∴ resists flushing action of gastric mucous
  • Triggers intracellular signalling pathways that disrupt normal cellular function → inflammation
  • Evasion of Host Immune Response
  • Alters host’s immune response, including suppressing T cell proliferation and skewing the immune response towards a less effective response ∴ fails to clear infection and promotes chronic inflammation
  • Avoids phagocytosis ∵ the outer membrane proteins protects it from neutrophils and macrophages
  • Secretion of Virulence Factors
  • CagA is delivered into host cells where it disrupts normal cellular signalling → changes in cell shape, proliferation and increased cytokine production
  • CagA induces cytokine production (IL-8) which recruits neutrophils and other inflammatory cells to site of infection → chronic inflammation and stimulation of gastric acid secretion
  • VacA forms pores in the epithelial cell membrane → apoptosis
400

What is the function of an Fc region on an antibody?

The fragment crystallisable region of an antibody binds to receptors, complement proteins to mediate opsonisation, cell lysis and degranulation.

500

What are the different classifications of nerve injury?

Neuropraxia = temporary failure of conduction of a nerve in the absence of structural damage (recovery days-weeks)

 

Axonotmesis = more significant injury involving axonal degeneration (spontaneous regeneration and good functional recovery)

 

Neurotmesis = severe injury involving either complete nerve severance or extensive crushing injury (spontaneous recovery limited)

 

500

Define and differentiate regeneration and repair.

  • Regeneration – process by which tissue is trying to get to the original state
  • There is proliferation of organ parenchymal cells resulting in almost complete restoration of tissue structure and function
  • In tissues where there is mitotic ability e.g. labile cells or stable cells
  • Stable cells stop multiplying when the growth of the mature organ is reached

--

  • Repair/Healing – lost tissue is replaced by proliferation of connective tissue → granulation tissue formation which matures to form fibrosis/scar
  • Usually in cases where cells cannot regenerate
  • Replacement of lost tissue by granulation tissue which matures (undergoes organisation) to form a scar
  • Restores original structures but involves collagen deposition and scar formation
500

Name the muscles recruited for abduction and the angles within which they are recruited.

Supraspinatus - 0-15

Deltoid - 15-90

Serratus Anterior - 90-180

Trapezoid (upper and lower fibres) - 90-180

500

What is a type A adverse drug reaction? give an example.

  • Some adverse drug reactions are an extension of a drug’s therapeutic effect
  • These are predictable and are often referred to as Type A (augmented) adverse reactions
  • E.g. insulin → hypoglycaemia
  • E.g. anticoagulants → bleeding and bruising
  • E.g. antihypertensive therapy → dizziness and light-headedness
500

What are anticholinergic effects on the bladder?

Anticholingeric drugs are first-line pharmacotherapy for overactive bladder syndrome.

They block muscarinic receptors (M3) at the detrusor muscle, thus reducing bladder contractility.