Hemangiosarcoma
MRD
Big blood swap
Small blood swap
Extras
100

What age and type of dog are commonly diagnosed with hemangiosarcoma?

Middle aged to older- large breed dogsd


100

What is a M component 

The protein that the cancerous population is overproducing 

100

What is the most important clinical indication for a blood transfusion? 

Decreased delivery of oxygen to the tissues-DO2

*due to anemia*

100

Animal donors can donate up to _____% of blood volume 

20%

100

What is TACO?

Transfusion Associated Circulatory Overload- volume overload associated with the increase in intravascular volume from a blood transfusion

200

 And what are the commonly affected areas on animals who develop HSA? (select all)

A- Ventral Abd

B- Inguinal 

C- Conjunctiva 

A/C

200

What immune globulin do monoclonal produce?

Y  "monoconal gammopathy"

200

what are Aa/Qa the most clinically significant blood type combination 

Most immune stimulating RBC antigen types

200

A dog that has received their first RBC transfusion a week ago is back in your clinic and needs another transfusion. Knowing that Typing for DEA 1 status for first time is not needed. What do you need to do for this second?

Typing or cross match?

Cross match- is required for all patients that have received a RBC transfusion more than 4 days previously. There has been enough time for antibody development 

200
6 hours post transfusion you patient has bilateral pulmonary edema, fever, and hypotension. What is this rxn called?

TRALI- caused by leukocyte antibodies from donor plasma reacting with recipients leukocytes 

300

Explain the "two thirds rule"



2/3 of splenic masses are malignant

75% of those malignancies 

90% of non-traumatic hemoabd cases are 

hemangiosarcoma

 

300

What are the 4 other characteristics that could lead you to diagnose Multiple myeloma?- (you need at least two to diagnose)

Hint: Monoclonal ______

1- bone marrow plasmacytosis 

2- osteolytic bone lesions 

3- monoclonal gammopathy 

4- Bence-Jones proteinuria - free light chain that slips into pee

300

T/F- It is pretty much always safe to used a healthy Quarter Horse broodmare's blood when there is no time from blood matching 


Calculate 30% blood volume for a 450kg horse

F- best to use a Quarter Horse gelding 

Why? because they are likely AaQa negative


8% body weight- (0.08)

(0.08) (450 kg)= 36kg= L

30% of 36kg= 10.8 L

300

Fill in the blanks : Ideal Canine Donor

Body wright ____ to _____ lbs - PVC at least ____%

No previous _________

Ideally _____ negative 

Avoid what breed/cross breed?

55-60, 40%

Transfusions 

DEA 1

Akita's - RBC have high K content - can cause hyperkalemia 

300

Indicate if this animal is in need of a bone marrow exam?

Cat with moderate regenerative anemia, moderate Heinz bodies, normal total protein, mild neutrophilia, and platelets with in reference interval

No- we have proof that the bone marrow is generating neutrophils and platelets 

400

What of the following are laboratory findings for HSA

A- Thrombocytosis

B- Schistocytes, Acanthocytes, nRBC

C- Renal failure 

D- strictly regenerative anemia 


What are the three stages of HSA

Thrombocytopenia 

B-correct 

C- cardio issues 

D- regenerative and non


1: Unruptured tumor < 5cm

2: Ruptured Tumor > 5cm

3: Distant Metastasis 

400

Explain why too much protein/plasma cells are bad?

Cancerous cells can infiltrate bones and organs. Circulating M protein can affect nearly all body systems

400

What are the two types of alloantibodies?

Why does become complicated when treating horses (giving transfusion)?

Hemolytic and agglutinating

Horses have robust hemolytic alloantibodies- ideally complement is added to cross match and identify strictly hemolytic alloantibodies 

400

Match the problem with the most efficient choice blood product

1- Liver Damage:

A- Fresh WB

B- Stored WB 

C- pRBC's

D- FFP (fresh frozen plasma)

C-FP (frozen plasma)


2- IMHA

A- Fresh WB

B- Stored WB 

C- pRBC's

D- FFP (fresh frozen plasma)

C-FP (frozen plasma)


3- Rodenticide Ingestion 

A- Fresh WB

B- Stored WB 

C- pRBC's

D- FFP (fresh frozen plasma)

E-FP (frozen plasma)

1- A whole blood, not the most efficient product for all problems. Only really helpful if patient is losing everything 

2- C- pRBC's, used in anemia where animals are anemic but not losing blood volume 

3- E-FP/D- fresh frozen plasma, both contain clotting factors. FP most cost effective 

400

How do a lack of particles in a aspirate smear limit the interpretation of the slide?

A- Can not estimate M:E

B- Can not estimate cellularity  

B- Problem w/ lack of particles: cant estimate cellularity 

Problem with lack of intact cells: cant estimate M:E

500

What of the following are not benign splenic masses?

A-Hematoma

B-Histiocytic sarcoma 

C- Nodular Hyperplasia 

D- Extramedullary hematopoiesis  


T/F- the best treatment for local HSA is radiation therapy 

A dog diagnosed with a stage 3, splenic HSA, undergoing surgery has what estimate of survival 


B- is malignant 


F- surgery- large margins 


Stage 3- 3 mo, 

Surgery- 1-3 mo

500

Myeloma is treated with  __________ styled treatment  


Survival time for dog________

Survival time for cats_______ 

systemic


D-18-31 mo

C- 4-13 mo

500

Neonatal Isoerythrolysis- requires the perfect storm

What are the perfect storm requirements?

1-

2-

3-

4-


1- Mare and foal have different blood types

2-Mare has been sensitized to AaQa before 

3- Antibodies produced by this amnestic response get into mares colostrum 

4- foal ingests adequate colostrum 

500

T/F acute hemolytic transfusion rxn is often seen in DEA 1 negative dogs given DEA 1 positive blood?


The biggest problem with delayed hemolytic transfusion rxn is _____ life span of RBC


The most common transfusion rxn is? And why does this happen?


T


Shortened 


A rise on temp within 4 hours of transfusion w/out hemolysis- Usually caused by WBCs or platelets components pf transfused blood. 


500

What is ATIII role?


Common disorders associated with deficiency of ATIII?

It is a crucial protein in the regulation of blood coagulation- inhibits several enzymes in the coagulation cascade. Helps prevent excessive clot formation and maintains balance.


Cause an increased risk of thrombin disorders 

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